Question
Physics Question on Waves
You have learnt that a travelling wave in one dimension is represented by a function y = f (x, t) where x and t must appear in the combination x – v t or x + v t, i.e. y = f (x ± v t). Is the converse true? Examine if the following functions for y can possibly represent a travelling wave :
(a) (x – vt )2
(b) log [x0x+vt]
(c) (x+vt)1
No;
Does not represent a wave Represents a wave Does not represent a wave The converse of the given statement is not true. The essential requirement for a function to represent a travelling wave is that it should remain finite for all values of x and t.
Explanation:
For x = 0 and t = 0, the function (x – vt) 2 becomes 0.
Hence, for x = 0 and t = 0, the function represents a point and not a wave.
For x = 0 and t = 0, the function
log (x0x+vt)=logo=∞
Since the function does not converge to a finite value for x = 0 and t = 0, it represents a travelling wave.
For x = 0 and t = 0, the function
log x+vt1=01=∞
Since the function does not converge to a finite value for x = 0 and t = 0, it does not represent a travelling wave.