Question

Which of the following is different from the others?

• A. $p \to q$
• B. $(\sim q) \to (\sim p)$
• C. $\sim p \vee q$
• D. None of these

Answer 1

Answer: (D)

None of these

Answer 2

We know that $p \to q = (\sim q) \to (\sim P) = \sim p \vee q$ So, all the three statements are logically equivalent.