Question
Question: Which of the following functions is an inverse function? A) \(f\left( x \right) = \dfrac{1}{{x - 1...
Which of the following functions is an inverse function?
A) f(x)=x−11
B) f(x)=x2 for all x
C) f(x)=x2,x⩾0
D) f(x)=x2,x⩽0
Solution
A function is said to be an inverse function if it undoes the action of some other function. For a function to be an inverse function, it should be a one-to-one function. So check whether the given functions are one-to-one or not.
Complete step by step answer:
Let us check for these functions individually.
A) Given function is f(x)=x−11
In order to check whether this function is one-to-one or not, we need to prove that if f(x)=f(y) then x=y
So let us start with f(x)=f(y)
By substituting these values in the given function, we get x−11=y−11
By solving, we get x−1=y−1⇒x=y
This means that the function f(x)=x−11 is a one-to-one function proving that it is an inverse function.
For option B, x will have two values when the square is removed so it cannot be one-to-one.
C) Given function is f(x)=x2,x⩾0
Similarly, we write f(x)=f(y) for this function.
By substituting, we get x2=y2
Generally, if we remove the square of this equation x would have two values of y i.e. ±y but in this case it is given that the value of x is greater than or equal to zero.
So the equation will be x=y
Therefore this function is one-to-one and hence is an inverse function.
For option D, it is given that x is less than or equal to zero. This means that the inverse function would have only imaginary values so this function cannot be an inverse.
Therefore option A and C are inverse functions.
Note: A one-to-one function can be explained as follows:
If a function f(x)=y then for every value of y there should be a unique value of x in the co-domain of the function.