Question
Question: What is the derivative of this function \(y={{\sin }^{-1}}{{x}^{2}}?\)...
What is the derivative of this function y=sin−1x2?
Solution
We will use the formula given by dxdf(u)=dudfdxdu where f is a function of u and u is a function of x. Also, we will use the trigonometric identity given by dxdsinx=cosx. Also, we will use the identity given by dxdxn=nxn−1.
Complete step by step solution:
Let us consider the given function y=sin−1x2.
We are asked to find the derivative of the given inverse trigonometric function.
So, now, we can rearrange this function to a trigonometric function which is given by siny=x2.
We know that the derivative of the Sine function is the Cosine function and there is no change in the sign.
We can write this rule of differentiation for the concerned trigonometric function mathematically as dxdsinx=cosx.
Also, since y is a function of x, we need to consider it separately.
We can write the formula as dxdf(u)=dudfdxdu where f is a function of u and u is a function of x.
The same goes here. As we can see, here, u=y and f(u)=sin−1x2.
So, now let us use this rule in the rearranged form of the given equation.
We will get the derivative as dxdsiny=dxdx2.
Now, we will use the above identities on the left-hand side of the above equation and we will use the basic rule of differentiation dxdxn=nxn−1 on the right-hand side of the above equation.
We will get cosydxdy=2x.
Now, let us transpose the Cosine function to get dxdy=cosy2x.
We know that cosx=1−sin2x.
So, when we use this, we will get dxdy=1−sin2y2x.
Now, we have siny=x2 and so, we will get dxdy=1−(x2)22x.
And that is, dxdy=1−x42x.
Hence the derivative is dxdy=1−x42x.
Note: We know the Pythagorean identity sin2x+cos2x=1. So, now, if we transpose the Sine function, we will get cos2x=1−sin2x. And now from this, we will get cosx=1−sin2x.