Question
Question: What is the antiderivative of \(\ln {{\left( x \right)}^{2}}\)?...
What is the antiderivative of ln(x)2?
Solution
First of all simplify the given logarithmic function by using the formula lnam=mlna and take the constant 2 out of the integral sign. Now, to calculate the integral of lnx, write it as lnx×1 and assume lnx as function 1 (f1(x)) and 1 as function 2 (f2(x)) and apply the rule of integration by parts given as ∫f1(x).f2(x)=[f1(x)∫f2(x)dx]−∫[f1′(x)∫f2(x)dx]dx to get the answer. Here, f1′(x)=dxd(f1(x)) .
Complete step by step solution:
Here we are asked to find the antiderivative of the function ln(x)2. In other words we need to integrate this function. First let us simplify this logarithmic function. So using the property of log given as lnam=mlna we get,
⇒ln(x)2=2lnx
Now, let us assume the integral as I, so we have,
⇒I=∫2lnxdx
Since 2 is a constant so it can be taken out of the integral sign. Therefore we have,
⇒I=2∫lnxdx
We don’t have any direct formula for the integral of log function so let us apply the integration by parts rule. To apply integration by parts rule we must have a product of two functions but here we have only one function. So to make it a product of two functions we can write lnx=lnx×1 where 1 can be called an algebraic function x0. Therefore the integral becomes,
⇒I=2∫lnx×1dx
Now, according to the ILATE rule we have to assume lnx as the function 1 (f1(x)) and 1 as function 2 (f2(x)). Here, ILATE stands for
I – Inverse trigonometric function
L – Logarithmic function
A – Algebraic function
T – Trigonometric function
E – Exponential function
The numbering of the functions is done according to the order of appearance in the above list. Therefore assuming lnx as function 1 (f1(x)) and 1 as function 2 (f2(x))we have the formula ∫f1(x).f2(x)dx=[f1(x)∫f2(x)dx]−∫[f1′(x)∫f2(x)dx]dx to calculate the product of two functions. So we get,