Question
Question: Using the relation \(2\left( 1-\cos \right)<{{x}^{2}},x=0\) or prove that \(\sin \left( \tan x \righ...
Using the relation 2(1−cos)<x2,x=0 or prove that sin(tanx)≥x,∀∈[0,4π] .
Solution
To prove sin(tanx)≥x,∀∈[0,4π] , we will consider sin(tanx)=x⇒sin(tanx)−x=0 . Let us assume f(x)=sin(tanx)−x . We will find the derivative of this function which gives f′(x)=cos2xcos(tanx)−cos2x...(i) . From 2(1−cos)<x2 , we will get cos(tanx)>1−2(tanx)2 by putting x=tanx . This gives f′(x)>cos2x1−2tan2x−cos2x . We will solve this and check the range [0,4π] , which shows that f(x) is an increasing function or f(x)≥0 ⇒sin(tanx)−x>0 .
Complete step-by-step solution:
We have to prove sin(tanx)≥x,∀∈[0,4π] .
Let us consider sin(tanx)=x
⇒sin(tanx)−x=0
Let us assume f(x)=sin(tanx)−x
Now, we have to differentiate the above expression with respect to x. We know that dxd(sinx)=cosx and dxd(tanx)=sec2x .
⇒f′(x)=cos(tanx)sec2x−1
We know that secx=cosx1 .
⇒f′(x)=cos2xcos(tanx)−1
⇒f′(x)=cos2xcos(tanx)−cos2x...(i)
Let us now consider 2(1−cos)<x2
Let us take 2 from LHS to RHS. We will get
⇒1−cosx<2x2
The above equation can be written as
−cosx<2x2−1
When we move the LHS to RHS and vise-versa, we will get
cosx>−2x2+1
Let us put x=tanx . Then the above equation becomes
cos(tanx)>1−2(tanx)2
We know that when cos(tanx)>1−2(tanx)2 in (i), then f′(x)>1−2(tanx)2 . Now, let’s substitute the above condition in (i). We will get
f′(x)>cos2x1−2tan2x−cos2x
We know that cos2x+sin2x=1 . Hence, the above expression becomes
f′(x)>cos2xsin2x−2tan2x
We know that tanx=cosxsinx . Hence, we can write the above expression as
f′(x)>cos2xsin2x−2cos2xsin2x
Now, let’s take sin2x common from the numerator.