Question
Question: Using the integral test, how do you show whether \[\sum {\dfrac{1}{{n{{(\log n)}^p}}}} \] diverges o...
Using the integral test, how do you show whether ∑n(logn)p1 diverges or converges from n=3 to infinity?
Solution
Hint : In this question, we have to show whether the given series converges or diverges by using the integral test. According to integral test, if an=f(n) , f(x) is a non-negative non-increasing function, then the condition for n∑∞an to converge is that the integral 1∫∞f(x)dx is finite and the condition for it to diverge is that the integral is infinite. So, we can easily solve this question by using the above information.
Complete step-by-step answer :
We have to integral test to show whether ∑n(logn)p1 converges or diverges from n=3 to infinity.
Let p be a natural number, that is p⩾1
For p=1,
3∫∞n(logn)p1dn=3∫∞nlogn1dn
Let
logn=u ⇒dndlogn=dndu ⇒n1dn=du
So, we get –
3∫∞logn1×n1dn=n=3∫n=∞u1du ⇒3∫∞nlogn1dn=[logu]n=3n=∞ ⇒3∫∞nlogn1dn=[log(logn)]n=3n=∞ ⇒3∫∞nlogn1dn=log(log∞)−log(log3)
We know that log∞=∞ so log(log∞)=∞
⇒3∫∞nlogn1dn=∞
The integral for p=1 is infinite and thus diverges.
At p>1
3∫∞n(logn)p1dn
Let –
logn=u ⇒du=n1dn
We know that log∞=0 so we get (1−p)(log∞)p−11=0 .
⇒3∫∞n(logn)p1dn=0−(1−p)(log3)p−11
Clearly, (1−p)(log3)p−11 is a finite quantity, so the integral is finite for p>1 and thus converges.
Hence, ∑n(logn)p1 diverges for p=1 and converges for p>1.
Note : A series is defined as an expression in which infinitely many terms are added one after the other to a given starting quantity. When we get further and further in a sequence, the terms get closer and closer to a specific limit, that is, when adding the terms one after the other, if we get partial sums that become closer and closer to a given number, then the series converges and it is known as the convergence of the series, otherwise it is a divergent series.