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Question: Two circular loops 1 and 2 whose centres coincide lie in a plane as shown in the figure. The radii o...

Two circular loops 1 and 2 whose centres coincide lie in a plane as shown in the figure. The radii of the loops are a1a_1 and a2a_2. If current I flows in loop2, then the magnetic flux ϕ1\phi_1 embraced by the loop1 is, (a1<<a2)(a_1 << a_2)

A

μ0πIa12\frac{\mu_0 \pi I a_1}{2}

B

μ0πIa22\frac{\mu_0 \pi I a_2}{2}

C

μ0πIa122a1\frac{\mu_0 \pi I a_1^2}{2a_1}

D

μ0πIa122a2\frac{\mu_0 \pi I a_1^2}{2a_2}

Answer

μ0πIa122a2\frac{\mu_0 \pi I a_1^2}{2a_2}

Explanation

Solution

To find the magnetic flux ϕ1\phi_1 embraced by loop 1 due to the current II flowing in loop 2, we need to determine the magnetic field produced by loop 2 at the location of loop 1 and then multiply it by the area of loop 1.

Given:

  • Radius of loop 1 = a1a_1
  • Radius of loop 2 = a2a_2
  • Current in loop 2 = II
  • Condition: a1<<a2a_1 << a_2 (Loop 1 is much smaller than loop 2)
  • Both loops are concentric and lie in the same plane.
  1. Magnetic Field due to Loop 2:

    Since a1<<a2a_1 << a_2, the magnetic field produced by the larger loop (loop 2) can be considered approximately uniform over the entire area of the smaller loop (loop 1). The best approximation for this uniform field is the magnetic field at the center of loop 2.

    The magnetic field B2B_2 at the center of a circular loop of radius a2a_2 carrying current II is given by:

    B2=μ0I2a2B_2 = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2a_2}

    This magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loops.

  2. Area of Loop 1:

    The area of loop 1, A1A_1, is given by:

    A1=πa12A_1 = \pi a_1^2

  3. Magnetic Flux through Loop 1:

    The magnetic flux ϕ1\phi_1 through loop 1 is the product of the magnetic field B2B_2 (assumed uniform over the area of loop 1) and the area A1A_1 of loop 1. Since the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop, the angle between the magnetic field vector and the area vector is 0 degrees, so cos(0)=1\cos(0^\circ) = 1.

    ϕ1=B2×A1\phi_1 = B_2 \times A_1

    Substitute the expressions for B2B_2 and A1A_1:

    ϕ1=(μ0I2a2)×(πa12)\phi_1 = \left(\frac{\mu_0 I}{2a_2}\right) \times (\pi a_1^2)

    ϕ1=μ0πIa122a2\phi_1 = \frac{\mu_0 \pi I a_1^2}{2a_2}

The calculated magnetic flux matches the fourth option.