Question
Question: The value of \(\int_{ - \dfrac{1}{{\sqrt 3 }}}^{\dfrac{1}{{\sqrt 3 }}} {\dfrac{{{x^4}}}{{1 - {x^4}}}...
The value of ∫−31311−x4x4cos−11+x22xdx=3A+12A2−4Alog3+13−1, then the value of A is:
A. π
B. 2π
C. 3π
D. None of these
Solution
We will first make the modification of putting x = -y and then put in the values accordingly, we will somehow get two times the integral we require to a definite value whose integral we can find easily and then compare that to the given RHS and find A.
Complete step-by-step answer:
Let I=∫−31311−x4x4cos−11+x22xdx ……….(1)
Let us now put x=−y, then we will have to put dx=−dy and the limits will interchange as well because when x will go to a, then –y will go to –a.
Hence, we will have:- I=∫31−311−y4y4cos−11+y2−2y(−dy)
We know that cos−1(−x)=π−cos−1x for −1⩽x⩽1.
Using this, we will get:-
I=∫−31311−y4y4[π−cos−1(1+y22y)]dy
Opening up the bracket on RHS will lead us to:-
I=π∫−31311−y4y4dy−∫−31311−y4y4cos−1(1+y22y)dy …………(2)
Let I1=π∫−31311−y4y4dy and I2=∫−31311−y4y4cos−1(1+y22y)dy
Replacing y by x in I1 and I2 will not change anything and we will get:-
I1=π∫−31311−x4x4dx ………….(3)
I2=∫−31311−x4x4cos−1(1+x22x)dx ……….(4)
Now, let we can clearly see that I2=I ……………(5)
Putting (3), (4) and (5) in (2), we will get:-
I=π∫−31311−x4x4dx−I
Taking the I from RHS to LHS, we will get:-
⇒2I=π∫−31311−x4x4dx
We can rewrite this as:-
⇒2I=π∫−31311−x41+x4−1dx
Now, rewriting it as:-
⇒2I=π∫−3131[−1+1−x41]dx
Now, rewriting it again as follows:-
⇒2I=−π∫−3131dx+π∫−31311−x41dx
On simplifying the RHS, we will get:-
⇒2I=−32π+π∫−31311−x41dx …………(6)
Let I3=∫−31311−x41dx
We can see that I3 is an even function because putting –x does not change it at all and we also know that: ∫−aaf(x)dx=2∫0af(x)dx if f(x) is an even function.
Therefore, we have:-
I3=2∫0311−x41dx
We can rewrite it as:-
⇒I3=∫0311−x41+1+x2−x2dx
Now we will use the formula:- a2−b2=(a+b)(a−b)
Therefore, we get:- ⇒I3=∫031(1−x2)(1+x2)1+1+x2−x2dx
Rewriting it as follows:-
⇒I3=∫0311−x21dx+∫0311+x21dx …………..(7)
Now, we will use the formula that:- ∫1+x21dx=tan−1x
Putting this in (7), we will get that:-
⇒I3=∫0311−x21dx+tan−131−tan−10
On simplifying it, we will get:-
⇒I3=∫0311−x21dx+6π ……….(8)
Now, let I4=∫0311−x21dx
We know that 1−x21=1−xE+1+xF
On solving this, we will have:-
1=E(1+x)+F(1−x)
Comparing both and solving, we will get:-
1−x21=2(1−x)1+2(1+x)1
Putting this in (8), we will get:-
I4=∫0312(1−x)1dx+∫0312(1+x)1dx
Now, we know that ∫x1dx=lnx
So, we will get:- ∫2(1−x)1dx+∫2(1+x)1dx=−21ln∣1−x∣+21ln∣1+x∣
Hence, ∫2(1−x)1dx+∫2(1+x)1dx=21ln∣1−x∣ln∣1+x∣ ( Because lna−lnb=lnba )
So, I4=21ln3−1ln3+1
On rewriting it, we will get:-
I4=−21ln3+1ln3−1 (Because lna−1=−lna)
Putting this in (8), we will get:-
⇒I3=−21ln3+1ln3−1+6π
Now putting this in (6), we will get:-
⇒2I=−32π−2πln3+1ln3−1+6π2
Hence, we get:-
⇒I=−31π−4πln3+1ln3−1+12π2
Now comparing this to 3A+12A2−4Alog3+13−1, we can clearly see that A=π.
So, the correct answer is “Option A”.
Note: The students must note that we have created a lot of I’s to reach the required integral, they may go in with the single integral as well but that can create a lot of confusion.
Alternate Way:-
Let us talk about the alternate method in brief:
We will use that:- cos−1y=2π−sin−1y.
So, cos−1(1+x22x)=2π−sin−1(1+x22x)=2π−tan−1x (By formula)
Now, use the fact that 1−x4x42tan−1x is an odd function and keep on simplifying, you will get the required answer.