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Question

Question: The force on element \( dl \) in the figure at a distance \( l \) from a long wire carrying current ...

The force on element dldl in the figure at a distance ll from a long wire carrying current I1{I_1} is

(A) μ0I1I22πlog(dl)\dfrac{{{\mu _0}{I_1}{I_2}}}{{2\pi }}\log \left( {dl} \right)
(B) μ0I1I2dl2πl\dfrac{{{\mu _0}{I_1}{I_2}dl}}{{2\pi l}}
(C) μ0I1I24πlog(dl)\dfrac{{{\mu _0}{I_1}{I_2}}}{{4\pi }}\log \left( {dl} \right)
(D) μ0I1I24πllog(dl)\dfrac{{{\mu _0}{I_1}{I_2}}}{{4\pi l}}\log \left( {dl} \right)

Explanation

Solution

To solve this question, we need to evaluate the magnetic field at the point where the element is placed. Then, applying the formula of the force on a current carrying conductor, we will get the answer.

Formula used: The formula which is used in solving this question is given by
B=μ0I2πrB = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2\pi r}} , here BB is the magnetic field produced by a straight current carrying conductor at a perpendicular distance of rr from it.
F=I(l×B)F = I\left( {\vec l \times \vec B} \right) , here FF is the force acting on a conductor of length ll carrying a current II , which is placed in a magnetic field of BB .

Complete step by step solution:
We know that the magnetic field due to a straight current carrying wire is given by
B=μ0I2πrB = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2\pi r}} (1)
According to the question, we have I=I1I = {I_1} . Also, the element dldl is at a distance r=lr = l from the current carrying wire. So putting these in (1) we get
B=μ0I12πlB = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}{I_1}}}{{2\pi l}}
From the right hand rule, we get the direction of this magnetic field into the plane of paper.
We know that the force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by F=I(l×B)F = I\left( {\vec l \times \vec B} \right)
Now, the current in the element is equal to I2{I_2} . Also, the length of this element is dldl . So the force on this element is
F=I2(dl×B)F = {I_2}\left( {d\vec l \times \vec B} \right)
As the magnetic field is perpendicular to the current in the element, so we get
F=I2BdlF = {I_2}Bdl
From (1)
F=I2(μ0I12πl)dlF = {I_2}\left( {\dfrac{{{\mu _0}{I_1}}}{{2\pi l}}} \right)dl
F=μ0I1I2dl2πlF = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}{I_1}{I_2}dl}}{{2\pi l}}
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Note:
We should not get confused as to why we have taken the magnetic field as uniform for the element dldl . As it is of infinitesimally small length, so the variation of the magnetic field over its length is negligible. So, it can be taken as constant.