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Question: The amplitude of an oscillating simple pendulum is 10 cm and its time period is 4 s. What is its spe...

The amplitude of an oscillating simple pendulum is 10 cm and its time period is 4 s. What is its speed after 1 second when it passes through the equilibrium position?
(A) Zero
(B) 2.0m/s2.0m/s
(C) 0.3m/s0.3m/s
(D) 0.4m/s0.4m/s

Explanation

Solution

A simple pendulum exhibits a simple harmonic motion. The properties of this particular type of motion can be used to find the mechanics that any oscillating pendulum experiences.
Formula used: y=asinωty = a\sin \omega t where yy is the displacement in a simple harmonic motion, aa is the amplitude,ω\omega is the angular frequency, and tt is the time.

Complete step by step answer:
We are aware that an oscillating pendulum undergoes simple harmonic motion (SHM). In this question, we are asked to find the speed of such a pendulum with the following specifications:
Amplitude: a=10cm=0.1ma = 10cm = 0.1m [1m=100cm][\because 1m = 100cm]
Time period: T=4sT = 4s
Time passed since the start of motion t=1st = 1s
We must remember to convert the unit into SI. We know that the displacement for SHM is given by:
y=asinωty = a\sin \omega t
To find the velocity, we differentiate the above equation as:
dydt=addt(sinωt)\dfrac{{dy}}{{dt}} = a\dfrac{d}{{dt}}\left( {\sin \omega t} \right) [aa comes outside as it is a constant]
v = \dfrac{{dy}}{{dt}} = a\omega \left( {\cos \omega t} \right)$$$$[\dfrac{d}{{dt}}\left( {\sin \theta } \right) = \cos \theta ]
Notice that this expression has the term ω\omega which is the angular frequency but in the question we are given with the linear time period. Hence, we convert TT as:
ω=2πT\omega = \dfrac{{2\pi }}{T}
We put this expression directly in our velocity to make the calculations easier:
v=a×2πT×cos(2πTt)v = a \times \dfrac{{2\pi }}{T} \times \cos \left( {\dfrac{{2\pi }}{T}t} \right)
Now, we substitute the values and calculate vv as:
v=0.1×2π4×cos(2π4×1)v = 0.1 \times \dfrac{{2\pi }}{4} \times \cos \left( {\dfrac{{2\pi }}{4} \times 1} \right)
We know that
cos(2π4)=cos(π2)=0\cos \left( {\dfrac{{2\pi }}{4}} \right) = \cos \left( {\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) = 0
This makes the value of v=0v = 0.

\therefore The speed after 1 second is option A i.e. zero.

Note: The time period for a simple pendulum is defined as the time taken by it to complete one to and fro motion about its mean position. While the angular frequency measures the angular displacement per unit time. Hence, a factor of 2π2\pi needs to be multiplied.