Question
Question: \(\sim(p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \land q)\) is logically equivalent to...
∼(p∨q)∨(∼p∧q) is logically equivalent to
A
~p
B
p
C
q
D
~q
Answer
~p
Explanation
Solution
∼(p∨q)∨(∼p∨q))
≡(∼p6mu∧∼q)∨(∼p∧q)
≡6mu∼p∧(∼q∨q)≡6mu∼p.
∼(p∨q)∨(∼p∧q) is logically equivalent to
~p
p
q
~q
~p
∼(p∨q)∨(∼p∨q))
≡(∼p6mu∧∼q)∨(∼p∧q)
≡6mu∼p∧(∼q∨q)≡6mu∼p.