Question
Question: \( \sim \left[ {\left( { \sim p} \right) \wedge q} \right]\) is logically equivalent to \(\left( a...
∼[(∼p)∧q] is logically equivalent to
(a)∼(p∨q)
(b)∼[p∧(∼q)]
(c)p∧(∼q)
(d)p∨(∼q)
(e)(∼p)∨(∼q)
Solution
In this particular question use the concept of distribution property i.e. ∼(a∧b)=(∼a)∨(∼b) and according to this property simplify the given expression so use these concepts to reach the solution of the question.
Complete step-by-step answer:
Given expression
∼[(∼p)∧q]
Now according to the distributive property ∼(a∧b)=(∼a)∨(∼b), so use this property in the above equation we have,
⇒∼[(∼p)∧q]=[∼(∼p)]∨(∼q)................ (1)
Now as we know that (∼) it is the symbol of negation, that is the opposite of something.
So, [∼(∼p)] = opposite of, opposite of something which is equivalent to something i.e. p.
Therefore, [∼(∼p)] = p, so use this property in equation (1) we have,
⇒∼[(∼p)∧q]=[∼(∼p)]∨(∼q)=p∨(∼q)
Therefore, ∼[(∼p)∧q]=p∨(∼q).
So, ∼[(∼p)∧q] is logically equivalent to p∨(∼q).
So this is the required answer.
So, the correct answer is “Option d”.
Note: Whenever we face such types of questions the key concept we have to remember is that always recall the distribution property which is stated above and always recall that, (∼)is the symbol of negation, that is opposite of something.