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Question: Show that the signum function \(f:R\to R\), defined by \(f(x)=\left\\{ \begin{aligned} & 1,\text...

Show that the signum function f:RRf:R\to R, defined by f(x)=\left\\{ \begin{aligned} & 1,\text{ if }x\ge 0 \\\ & 0,\ \text{if }x=0 \\\ & -1,\text{ if }x\le 0 \\\ \end{aligned} \right\\} is neither one-one nor onto.

Explanation

Solution

Hint: To check whether the given function is one-one or not, assume two elements x1 and x2{{x}_{1}}\text{ and }{{x}_{2}} in the set of the domain of the given function and substitute f(x1)=f(x2)f({{x}_{1}})=f({{x}_{2}}). If x1=x2{{x}_{1}}={{x}_{2}}, then f(x)f(x) is one-one and if there is any more relation between x1 and x2{{x}_{1}}\text{ and }{{x}_{2}} other than x1=x2{{x}_{1}}={{x}_{2}} then f(x)f(x) is not one-one. To check whether the given function is onto or not, check if the range of f(x)f(x) is equal to co-domain or not. Here, co-domain is the set of all values of f(x)f(x) in which the range of the function is constrained.

Complete step-by-step solution -
It is given that function is defined for all real numbers and over all real numbers. Therefore, both domain and co-domain of the given function consists of the set of all real numbers.
First let us show that the function is not one-one.
Assume two elements x1 and x2{{x}_{1}}\text{ and }{{x}_{2}} in the set of the domain of the given function. Therefore,
f(x1)=f(x2)f({{x}_{1}})=f({{x}_{2}})
Substituting x1 and x2{{x}_{1}}\text{ and }{{x}_{2}} in the function, we get the value of function equal to 1. Therefore, for every x1 and x2{{x}_{1}}\text{ and }{{x}_{2}}, we get the same value of the function, that is 1. Similar is the case with x equal to zero and x less than zero.
Therefore, f(x)f(x) is not one-one but many-one function.
Now, let us show that the given function is not onto.
Clearly, we can see that the co-domain of the function contains the set of real numbers. Since, f(x)=\left\\{ \begin{aligned} & 1,\text{ if }x\ge 0 \\\ & 0,\ \text{if }x=0 \\\ & -1,\text{ if }x\le 0 \\\ \end{aligned} \right\\}, therefore, the range of f(x)f(x) will be only -1 , 0 and 1 for any real values of x. So, here the range and co-domain are not equal.
Therefore, it is proved that f(x)f(x) is not onto.

Note: One may note that, for proving that the function is not onto, we can draw the graph of the signum function but that will be a lengthy process in comparison to the above theoretical approach. Also, for any value of ‘x’ greater than or less than ‘0’ the value of function is 1 or -1 respectively. Therefore, the function is said as many-one.