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Question

Mathematics Question on Relations and Functions

Show that the function f: R* \to** ** R* defined by f(x)= 1x\frac {1} {x} is one-one and onto, where R* is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R* is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R* ?

Answer

It is given that f :**** R* \to R* is defined by f (x)= 1x\frac {1} {x} .
One-one: f (x)=f (y)
\Rightarrow 1x\frac {1} {x} = 1y\frac {1} {y}
\Rightarrow _ _ x=y.
∴ f is one-one.
Onto:
It is clear that for y ∈ R* , there exists x = 1y\frac {1} {y} ∈ R* ** (exists as y ≠ 0 )** such that f (x)= 11y\dfrac {1} { \frac {1} {y}}=y.
∴ f __ is onto.
Thus, the given function (f) is one-one and onto.
Now, consider function g : N \to R* defined by
g (x)= 1x\frac {1} {x}
we have __ g (x1)=g (x2) \Rightarrow 1x1\frac {1} {x_1}= \frac {1} {x_2}$$\Rightarrow x1 = x2
∴ g is one-one.
Further, it is clear that g is not onto as for 1.2 ∈R* there does not exit any x in N such
that g (x) = 11.2\frac {1} {1.2}

Hence, function g is one-one but not onto.