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Question

Question: Show that: \[\sin x < x - \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{6} + \dfrac{{{x^5}}}{{120}}\] for \(x > 0\)....

Show that:
sinx<xx36+x5120\sin x < x - \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{6} + \dfrac{{{x^5}}}{{120}} for x>0x > 0.

Explanation

Solution

To prove this inequality, we will use the Rolle's theorem. The Rolle's theorem is as follows: If f:[a,b]Rf:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R} is continuous on [a,b][a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a,b) such that f(a)=f(b)f(a) = f(b), then there exists some c(a,b)c \in (a,b) such that f(c)=0f'(c) = 0.

Complete step by step answer:
We will first consider the following function,
f(x)=xx36+x5120sinxf(x) = x - \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{6} + \dfrac{{{x^5}}}{{120}} - \sin x
To show that
sinx<xx36+x5120\sin x < x - \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{6} + \dfrac{{{x^5}}}{{120}}
is the same as having to show that f(x)>0f(x) > 0 for x>0x > 0. We can see that f(0)=0f(0) = 0. Now, we take the first derivative of f(x)f(x),
f(x)=1x22+x424cosxf'(x) = 1 - \dfrac{{{x^2}}}{2} + \dfrac{{{x^4}}}{{24}} - \cos x
and we can directly see that f(0)=0f'(0) = 0.
Now, we will look at the second derivative of f(x)f(x),
f(x)=x+x36+sinxf''(x) = - x + \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{6} + \sin x
Let g(x)=f(x)g(x) = f''(x). We can see that at x=0x = 0, g(x),g(x),g(x),g(x)g(x),g'(x),g''(x),g'''(x) and g(4)(x){g^{(4)}}(x) are 00. This means that the first four derivatives of g(x)g(x) vanish at x=0x=0.
Now, let x1>0{x_1} > 0 be such that g(x1)=0g({x_1}) = 0, that means, x1{{x}_{1}} is a positive value where the function gg is 00. Now we have g(x)=g(x1)g(x)=g({{x}_{1}}). So now we can apply Rolle's theorem to the function gg, and to its subsequent derivatives. Calculating the higher derivatives of the function gg, we get the fourth derivative as g(4)(x)=sinx{g^{(4)}}(x) = \sin x, and by properties of the sine function, we can safely say that our function does not change signs for 0<x<π0 < x < \pi.
Now, we can see that g(x)=f(x)>0g(x) = f''(x) > 0 for x>0x > 0 because sinx1\sin x \geqslant - 1 and x+x36>32- x + \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{6} > \dfrac{3}{2}.
Hence, f(x)>0f(x) > 0 for x>0x > 0.

Note:
Understanding when the Rolle's theorem or the mean value theorem can be applied is important. The trick part in this question is to look at the higher derivatives and apply Rolle's theorem. This inequality that we proved for x>0x>0 does not hold true if we consider x<0x<0.