Question
Question: Show that \(\left( Z,* \right)\) is an infinite abelian group, where ‘*’ is defined as: \(a*b=a+b+...
Show that (Z,∗) is an infinite abelian group, where ‘*’ is defined as:
a∗b=a+b+2 , and Z is the set of all integers.
Solution
Hint: First check all the four fundamental properties of a group. Which are closure property, associativity, the identity property, and the inverse property. Then check if the operation is commutative or not.
Complete step-by-step answer:
We can say that (Z,∗) is a group if it satisfies the following four properties:
Closure property: If we take any two elements from the set, which is Z here, then the composition of those two elements also should belong from that set. That is, a,b∈Z⇒a∗b∈Z.
Associativity: The defined operation should be associative. That is, (a∗b)∗c=a∗(b∗c).
The identity property: There exist an element, say e , such that: a∗e=e∗a , for all a∈Z.
The inverse property: For each a∈Z, there exist an element a−1 in Z such that: a∗a−1=a−1∗a=e
(Z,∗) is said to be an abelian group if for all a,b∈Z, a∗b=b∗a.
Now let us check the first four properties one by one.
Let, a,b∈Z.
a∗b=a+b+2 also belongs to the set of integers. Because if a and b are integers then addition of this two integers will give us an integer and if we add 2 with them it will again give us an integer. Therefore the closure property holds.
Let a,b,c∈Z
a∗b=a+b+2(a∗b)∗c=(a∗b)+c+2=a+b+2+c+2=a+b+c+4
b∗c=b+c+2a∗(b∗c)=a+(b∗c)+2=a+b+c+2+2=a+b+c+4
Therefore:
a∗(b∗c)=(a∗b)∗c, so the associativity holds.
Let us assume that for every element that belongs to the set, there exist an element e such that:
a∗e=a⇒a+e+2=a⇒e+2=a−a⇒e+2=0⇒e=−2
So the identity element exists and that is -2.
Let us assume that for each element a∈Z there exist an element a−1 such that:
a∗a−1=e⇒a+a−1+2=−2⇒a+a−1=−2−2⇒a−1=−4−a
So for each element the inverse element exists.
Therefore (Z,∗) satisfies all the four properties. Hence (Z,∗) is a group.
Now we have to check if it is abelian or not.
a∗b=a+b+2=b+a+2=b∗a
Therefore for all a,b∈Z
a∗b=b∗a
Hence (Z,∗) is an abelian group.
We know that there are infinite numbers of elements in the set of all integers.
Hence, (Z,∗) is an infinite abelian group.
Note: We generally make mistakes while checking the four properties. To be a group all the four properties have to be satisfied. Then we need to check the abelian property separately. A group is not always abelian.