Question
Question: If $f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{x\ln(\cos x)}{\ln(1+x^2)} \text{ for } x \neq 0 \\ 0 \text{ for } x=0...
If f(x)={ln(1+x2)xln(cosx) for x=00 for x=0, then

A
f(x) is continuous at x=0
B
f(x) is differentiable at x=0
C
f'(0) = -1/2
D
f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x=0
Answer
f(x) is continuous at x=0, f(x) is differentiable at x=0, and f'(0) = -1/2.
Explanation
Solution
To check for continuity at x=0, we evaluate limx→0f(x). Using Taylor series: ln(cosx)≈−2x2 and ln(1+x2)≈x2. So, limx→0x2x(−2x2)=limx→0−2x=0. Since f(0)=0, f(x) is continuous at x=0.
To check for differentiability at x=0, we evaluate f′(0)=limh→0hf(h)−f(0). f′(0)=limh→0h1(ln(1+h2)hln(cosh))=limh→0ln(1+h2)ln(cosh). Using Taylor series again: limh→0h2−2h2=−21. Since the limit exists, f(x) is differentiable at x=0 and f′(0)=−1/2.
