Question
Question: Prove whether the given expressions are equal or not \({{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \dfrac{1}{4} \right)+{{\...
Prove whether the given expressions are equal or not tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=21cos−1(53)=21sin−1(54).
Solution
Hint:We will apply the formulas which are part of trigonometry. We will use tan−1(x)+tan−1(y)=tan−1(1−xyx+y) here to solve the question and also we will apply the Pythagoras theorem and substitution in order to solve the question further.
Complete step-by-step answer:
We will here consider the expression tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=21cos−1(53)=21sin−1(54)...(i). We have three sides here. One is on the left hand side and the other two are on the middle and right sides. We will first consider the left hand side of expression (i) which is tan−1(41)+tan−1(92). Now we will apply the formula which is given by tan−1(x)+tan−1(y)=tan−1(1−xyx+y). Therefore, we get
tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=tan−11−(41)(92)41+92
As the lcm of 4 and 9 is 36 thus, we have
tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=tan−11−(41)(92)41+92
⇒tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=tan−13636−2369+8
After further solving we have
tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=tan−136343617
⇒tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=tan−1(3417)
⇒tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=tan−1(21)
Now, we will put tan−1(21)=x and we will place the inverse tangent term to the right side of the equation. Thus, we have tan−1(21)=x. The diagram for this is given as,
Now we will apply the Pythagoras theorem. Therefore, we get
y2=(1)2+(2)2
⇒y2=1+4
⇒y2=5
⇒y=±5
As the side of the triangle cannot be negative therefore we have y = 5 which is the hypotenuse of the triangle. Now, we will use the formula cosx=HypotenuseBase. This results in cosx=52. So, our left hand side is converted into cosx=52...(ii).
Also, we will use the formula sin(x)=HypotenusePerpendicular resulting into sin(x)=51...(iii).
Now we will consider the middle term which is 21cos−1(53) and will substitute t equal to z. Therefore, we get 21cos−1(53)=z. Now, we will multiply the whole equation by 2. Thus we now have cos−1(53)=2z which after taking the inverse cosine term to the right side of the equation is converted into 53=cos(2z). As we know that the formula for cos(2z)=cos2(z)−1. Therefore we now have
cos2(z)−1=53
⇒cos2(z)=53+1
⇒cos2(z)=53+5
⇒cos2(z)=58
⇒cos(z)=58
⇒cos(z)=52
And this is equal to the equation (ii) since, x = z only. Therefore the left hand side is equal to the middle term.
Now we will consider the right hand side of the expression (i) which is 21sin−1(54). After substituting it equal to p we have 21sin−1(54)=p. Now, we will multiply the whole equation by 2. Thus we now have sin−1(54)=2p which after taking the inverse sine term to the right side of the equation is converted into (54)=sin(2p). As we know that the formula for sin(2p)=2sin(p)cos(p). Therefore we now have
sin(2p)=2sin(p)cos(p)
⇒54=2sin(p)cos(p)
As we are taking the same angle that means y = z = p. Thus we can substitute the value of cos(z)=52 as z = p. Thus, we get
2sin(p)cos(p)=54
⇒2sin(p)52=54
⇒2sin(p)=54×25
⇒2sin(p)=52
⇒sin(p)=51
Now, we will take the sine term to the right side therefore we get p=sin−1(51) which is equal to the equation (iii) since p = x.
Hence, we have proved the expression tan−1(41)+tan−1(92)=21cos−1(53)=21sin−1(54).
Note: While substituting the terms equal to variables which represent a certain angle implies the same angle if it is in the same question. Alternatively we could have started the question solving with the right hand side first and then assigned a triangle for it. After applying the Pythagoras theorem, find the base of the triangle and proceed to the middle and then the left hand side of the expression. Also, starting from the middle will also result in the right answer if used the same steps done in this question.