Question
Question: Prove the following statement - \(\dfrac{\tan A+\sec A-1}{\tan A-\sec A+1}=\dfrac{1+\sin A}{\cos A}\...
Prove the following statement - tanA−secA+1tanA+secA−1=cosA1+sinA.
Solution
Hint: In order to prove this relation, we need to have some basic knowledge of the trigonometric identities like, tan2A+1=sec2A and some trigonometric ratios transformations like tanA=cosAsinA and secA=cosA1. We should also know a few algebraic identities like, a2−b2=(a−b)(a+b). By using these identities, we can prove the required relation.
Complete step-by-step answer:
In this question, we are asked to prove that, tanA−secA+1tanA+secA−1=cosA1+sinA. For the same, we will first consider the left hand side or the LHS of the equation. So, we can write it as, LHS=tanA−secA+1tanA+secA−1
Now, we know that tan2A+1=sec2A, so we will write 1=sec2A−tan2A. So, we get the LHS as,
LHS=(tanA−secA+1)(tanA+secA)−(sec2A−tan2A)
Now, we know that a2−b2=(a−b)(a+b). So, we can write sec2A−tan2A as (secA−tanA)(secA+tanA). Therefore, we can write the LHS as follows,
LHS=(tanA−secA+1)(tanA+secA)−(secA−tanA)(secA+tanA)
We can see that (tanA+secA) is common in both the terms of the numerator of LHS, so we get,
LHS=(tanA−secA+1)(tanA+secA)[1−(secA−tanA)]
And after simplifying further, we get,
LHS=(tanA−secA+1)(tanA+secA)[1−secA+tanA]⇒LHS=(tanA−secA+1)(tanA+secA)[tanA−secA+1]
We can see here that (tanA−secA+1) is common in both the numerator and denominator, so cancelling these common terms, we get,
LHS=tanA+secA
We also know that tanA and secA can be written in terms of sinA and cosA. So, tanA=cosAsinA and secA=cosA1. By applying these identities, we get,
LHS=cosAsinA+cosA1
Taking the LCM of the terms of the LHS, we get,
LHS=cosAsinA+1, which is the same as, LHS=cosA1+sinA
We know the right hand side or the RHS of the given statement is RHS=cosA1+sinA. So, we can say, LHS=RHS
Hence, we have proved that, tanA−secA+1tanA+secA−1=cosA1+sinA.
Note: In this question, one can think of converting tanA and secAin terms of sinA and cosA to prove the expression or we can think of rationalizing the denominator, but that will take us to a point where we may get stuck and confused. So, it is better to write 1=sec2A−tan2A, by using the property tan2A+1=sec2A in the LHS and then applying a2−b2=(a−b)(a+b) and simplifying to get the desired result.