Question
Question: Prove the following expression \(2{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \dfrac{3}{5} \right)-{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \df...
Prove the following expression 2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=4π.
Solution
Hint:We will use the formulas of trigonometry to which we are familiar. The ones that are used here are sinx=Hypotenuseperpendicular and tanx=Baseperpendicular for finding the values of trigonometric terms. Also, we have used tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y) to solve the question further.
Complete step-by-step answer:
Let us first consider the expression 2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=4π...(i). We will start with substituting sin−1(53)=x. Thus after placing the inverse sine term to the right side of the equation we will get 53=sinx. By the formula sinx=Hypotenuseperpendicular we have 3 as perpendicular and 5 as hypotenuse. The diagram for this is given as
Now we will apply the Pythagoras theorem. Thus we will get,
(5)2=y2+(3)2⇒25=y2+9⇒y2=25−9⇒y2=16⇒y2=16⇒y=±4
As the side of the triangle cannot be negative therefore y = 4. Now we will use the formula given by tanx=Baseperpendicular. As we have perpendicular as 3 and base as 4. Thus we have tan(x)=43. Taking the inverse tangent to the right side of the equation we will have x=tan−1(43). Since, we have sin−1(53)=x thus, sin−1(53)=tan−1(43). Now, we will substitute this value in the left hand side of the equation (i) which results into 2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=2tan−1(43)−tan−1(3117)⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(43)+tan−1(43)−tan−1(3117)
Now, we will apply the formula given by tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y). Thus our equation changes into
2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(43)+tan−1(43)−tan−1(3117)⇒⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−11−(43)(43)43+43−tan−1(3117)⇒⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−11616−946−tan−1(3117)⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(16×74)−tan−1(3117)⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(727)−tan−1(3117)
Now we will again apply the formula given by tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y). Thus, we get
2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−11+(724)(3117)724−3117⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1217217+408217744−119⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(645645)⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(1)
As we know that the value of tan−1(4π)=1 and tan−1tan(x)=x we can have
2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(1)⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=tan−1(tan(4π))⇒2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=4π
Hence, the value of the expression 2sin−1(53)−tan−1(3117)=4π.
Note: Alternatively we could have used the formula given by tan(2x)=1−tan2(x)2tan(x) after tan(x)=43. By this we can directly do the substitution 2sin−1(53) in expression (i). Also, instead of splitting 2tan−1(43) into tan−1(43)+tan−1(43) we could have used the formula of 2tan−1(x)=tan−1(1−x22x) and proceeded further. Moreover, instead of converting the inverse sine term into tangent with the help of diagram and Pythagoras we could have use direct formula for converting it. The formula for this is given by sin−1x=tan−1(1−x2x).