Question
Question: Prove that \( \cot \left( {{\cot }^{-1}}x \right)=x,x\in \mathbb{R} \)...
Prove that cot(cot−1x)=x,x∈R
Solution
Hint : Use the fact that if y=cot−1x , then x=coty . Assume y=cot−1x . Write cot(cot−1x) in terms of y and hence prove the above result.
Complete step-by-step answer :
Before dwelling into the proof of the above question, we must understand how cot−1x is defined even when cotx is not one-one.
We know that cotx is a periodic function.
Let us draw the graph of cotx
As is evident from the graph cotx is a repeated chunk of the graph of cotx within the interval (A, B) and it attains all its possible values in the interval (A, B)
Hence if we consider cotx in the interval (A, B), we will lose no value attained by cotx, and at the same time, cotx will be one-one and onto.
Hence cot−1x is defined over the Domain R , with codomain (0,π) as in the Domain (0,π) , cotx is one-one and Range(cotx)=R .
Now since cot−1x is the inverse of cotx it satisfies the fact that if y=cot−1x , then coty=x .
So let y=cot−1x .
Hence we have coty = x.
Now cot(cot−1x)=coty
Hence we have cot(cot−1x)=x .
Also as x is the Domain of cot−1x , we have x∈R .
Hence cot(cot−1x)=x,x∈R
Note : [1] The above-specified codomain for cot−1x is called principal branch for cot−1x . We can select any branch as long as cotx is one-one and onto and Range =R . Instead of (0,π) , we can select the interval (π,2π) . The proof will remain the same as above.