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Question: Prove that \(\cos \left( {{\cos }^{-1}}x \right)=x,x\in \left[ -1,1 \right]\)...

Prove that cos(cos1x)=x,x[1,1]\cos \left( {{\cos }^{-1}}x \right)=x,x\in \left[ -1,1 \right]

Explanation

Solution

Hint: Use the fact that if y=cos1xy={{\cos }^{-1}}x, then x=cosyx=\cos y. Assume y=cos1xy={{\cos }^{-1}}x. Write cos(cos1x)\cos \left( {{\cos }^{-1}}x \right) in terms of y and hence prove the above result.

Complete step-by-step answer:
Before dwelling into the proof of the above question, we must understand how cos1x{{\cos }^{-1}}x is defined even when cosx\cos x is not one-one.
We know that cosx is a periodic function.
Let us draw the graph of cosx

As is evident from the graph cosx is a repeated chunk of the graph of cosx within the interval [A, B] and it attains all its possible values in the interval [A, C]. Here A=0,B=2πA=0,B=2\pi and C=πC=\pi .
Hence if we consider cosx in the interval [A, C], we will lose no value attained by cosx, and at the same time, cosx will be one-one and onto.
Hence cos1x{{\cos }^{-1}}x is defined over the Domain [1,1]\left[ -1,1 \right], with codomain [0,π]\left[ 0,\pi \right] as in the Domain [0,π]\left[ 0,\pi \right], cosx is one-one and Rcosx=[1,1]{{R}_{\cos x}}=\left[ -1,1 \right].
Now since cos1x{{\cos }^{-1}}x is the inverse of cosx it satisfies the fact that if y=cos1xy={{\cos }^{-1}}x, then cosy=x\cos y=x.
So let y=cos1xy={{\cos }^{-1}}x
Hence we have cosy = x.
Now cos(cos1x)=cosy\cos \left( {{\cos }^{-1}}x \right)=\cos y
Hence we have cos(cos1x)=x\cos \left( {{\cos }^{-1}}x \right)=x.
Also as x is the Domain of cos1x{{\cos }^{-1}}x, we have x[1,1]x\in \left[ -1,1 \right].
Hence cos(cos1x)=x,x[1,1]\cos \left( {{\cos }^{-1}}x \right)=x,x\in \left[ -1,1 \right]

Note: [1] The above-specified codomain for cos1x{{\cos }^{-1}}x is called principal branch for cos1x{{\cos }^{-1}}x. We can select any branch as long as cosx\cos x is one-one and onto and Range =[1,1]=\left[ -1,1 \right]. The proof will remain the same as above.