Question
Question: Suppose $f: [0, 1] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is differentiable with $f(0) = 0$. If $|f'(x)| \leq f(x)$...
Suppose f:[0,1]→R is differentiable with f(0)=0. If ∣f′(x)∣≤f(x) for all x∈[0,1], then show that f(x)=0 for all x.

Answer
The problem asks to show that f(x)=0 for all x∈[0,1]. The proof above demonstrates this conclusion.
Explanation
Solution
- Given ∣f′(x)∣≤f(x) for all x∈[0,1]. Since ∣f′(x)∣≥0, this implies f(x)≥0 for all x∈[0,1].
- The inequality ∣f′(x)∣≤f(x) is thus equivalent to −f(x)≤f′(x)≤f(x).
- Consider the inequality f′(x)≤f(x). Rearranging gives f′(x)−f(x)≤0.
- Multiply by e−x (which is positive for all x): e−xf′(x)−e−xf(x)≤0.
- The left side is the derivative of e−xf(x): dxd(e−xf(x))≤0.
- Let g(x)=e−xf(x). Then g′(x)≤0, which means g(x) is a non-increasing function on [0,1].
- Therefore, for any x∈[0,1], g(x)≤g(0).
- Given f(0)=0, we have g(0)=e−0f(0)=1⋅0=0.
- So, g(x)≤0, which implies e−xf(x)≤0.
- Since e−x>0, we must have f(x)≤0 for all x∈[0,1].
- Combining the results from step 1 (f(x)≥0) and step 10 (f(x)≤0), we conclude that f(x)=0 for all x∈[0,1].