Question
Question: Let (x) and g(x) be defined and differentiable for x ³ x<sub>0</sub> and (x<sub>0</sub>) = g(x<sub...
Let (x) and g(x) be defined and differentiable for x ³ x0 and (x0) = g(x0), ¢ (x) > g ¢ (x) for x > x0, then –
A
(x) < g(x) for some x > x0
B
(x) = g(x) for some x > x0
C
(x) > g(x) for some x > x0
D
None of these
Answer
(x) > g(x) for some x > x0
Explanation
Solution
Consider the function f(x) = (x) – g(x). On the interval x0, x. Then, f(x) satisfies all the conditions of Lagrange’s mean value theorem on x0, x.
There exists at least one c Ī (x0, x) such that
f(x) – f(x0) = f ¢ (3) (x – x0)
Ž f(x) = f ¢ (3) (x – x0) (Q f(x0) = 0) … (1)
Also, f¢(x) = ¢ (x) – g ¢ (x)
Ž f ¢ (3) = ¢ (3) – g ¢ (3) > 0
(Q ¢ (x) > g ¢ (x) for x > x0)
from (1), f(x) > 0, for x > x0
Ž (x) – g(x) > 0 for x > x0
or (x) > g(x) for x > x0 .