Question
Question: Let g(x) = \( \int_{{}}^{{}}{\dfrac{1+2\cos x}{{{\left( \cos x+2 \right)}^{2}}}dx} \) and g(0) = 0, ...
Let g(x) = ∫(cosx+2)21+2cosxdx and g(0) = 0, then the value of 32g(2π) is ?
Solution
Hint: Here, we will use the formula for integration by parts. We will first convert g(x) into a form in which integration by parts can be easily applied. We will then choose u and v according to the ILATE rule and proceed. Other formulas that will be used are ∫cosxdx=sinx+c , dxd(cosx)=−sinx and also dxd(x1)=−x21 .
Complete step-by-step answer:
Integration by parts formula is used for integrating the product of two functions. This method is to find the integrals by reducing them into standard forms. The formula for integrating by parts is given as:
∫u.vdx=u∫vdx−∫(dxdu∫vdx)dx........(1)
We take the functions as u and v using the ILATE rule, according to the ILATE rule preference order or taking u is as Inverse, Algebraic, Logarithm, Trigonometric and Exponent.
Here, the function given to us is:
g(x) = ∫(cosx+2)21+2cosxdx
Since, we know the identity cos2x+sin2x=1 , we can replace 1 by cos2x+sin2x=1 .So, we get:
g(x) = ∫(cosx+2)2cos2x+sin2x+2cosxdx