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Question: Let \[f\] and \[g\] be continuous functions on the interval \[\left[ 0,a \right]\], such that \[f\le...

Let ff and gg be continuous functions on the interval [0,a]\left[ 0,a \right], such that f(x)=f(ax)f\left( x \right)=f\left( a-x \right) and g(x)+g(ax)=4g\left( x \right)+g\left( a-x \right)=4. Then evaluate the integral 0af(x)g(x)dx\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx}.
(a) 40af(x)dx4\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}
(b) 20af(x)dx2\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}
(c) 302f(x)dx-3\int\limits_{0}^{2}{f\left( x \right)dx}
(d) 0af(x)dx\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}

Explanation

Solution

In this question, in order to evaluate the definite integral 0af(x)g(x)dx\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx} given that ff and gg be continuous functions on the interval [0,a]\left[ 0,a \right], such that f(x)=f(ax)f\left( x \right)=f\left( a-x \right) and g(x)+g(ax)=4g\left( x \right)+g\left( a-x \right)=4. We will use the property of the definite integral that 0af(x)dx=0af(ax)dx\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)dx} in the integral 0af(x)g(x)dx\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx} to get a simplified form of the integral. We will then evaluate the same in order to get the desired answer.

Complete step by step answer:
We are given that ff and gg be continuous functions on the interval [0,a]\left[ 0,a \right].
The function ff satisfies the equation given by f(x)=f(ax)...........(1)f\left( x \right)=f\left( a-x \right)...........(1).
And the function gg satisfies the equation g(x)+g(ax)=4..............(2)g\left( x \right)+g\left( a-x \right)=4..............(2).
Let us suppose that II denote the integral 0af(x)g(x)dx\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx}.
That is, let I=0af(x)g(x)dxI=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx}.
Since we know the property of the definite integral that 0af(x)dx=0af(ax)dx\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)dx} .
Using this in the integral I=0af(x)g(x)dxI=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx}, we will have

& I=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx} \\\ & =\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)g\left( a-x \right)dx} \end{aligned}$$ Now from equation (2), we have $$g\left( a-x \right)=4-g\left( x \right)............(4)$$ On substituting the value of equation (4) in the above integral, we will get $$\begin{aligned} & I=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)g\left( a-x \right)dx} \\\ & =\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)\left( 4-g\left( x \right) \right)dx} \end{aligned}$$ We know split the above integral to get $$\begin{aligned} & I=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)\left( 4-g\left( x \right) \right)dx} \\\ & =4\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)dx}-\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)g\left( x \right)dx} \end{aligned}$$ Now using equation (1) in the above integral, we will have $$\begin{aligned} & I=4\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)dx}-\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)g\left( x \right)dx} \\\ & =4\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}-\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx} \end{aligned}$$ Using the fact that $$I=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx}$$ in the above equation we will get $$\begin{aligned} & I=4\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}-\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx} \\\ & =4\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}-I \end{aligned}$$ Now on taking $$I$$ common at the left hand side of the above equation we get $$2I=4\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}$$ We will now divide the above equation by 2 to get $$\begin{aligned} & I=\dfrac{4}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx} \\\ & =2\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx} \end{aligned}$$ Therefore we have $$\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx}=2\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}$$. **So, the correct answer is “Option B”.** **Note:** In this problem, , in order to evaluate the definite integral $$\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)g\left( x \right)dx}$$ given that $$f$$ and $$g$$ be continuous functions on the interval $$\left[ 0,a \right]$$, such that $$f\left( x \right)=f\left( a-x \right)$$ and $$g\left( x \right)+g\left( a-x \right)=4$$, we are using the property that $$\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( x \right)dx}=\int\limits_{0}^{a}{f\left( a-x \right)dx}$$. Please take care of the fact that we can use this property only in case of definite integrals where the integrand is continuous in the given range of lower limit and the upper limit of the integral.