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Question: Let f: [0, 1]→R be a continuous function such that for any x, y ∈ [0, 1] x f(y) + y f(x) ≤1 The max...

Let f: [0, 1]→R be a continuous function such that for any x, y ∈ [0, 1]

x f(y) + y f(x) ≤1 The maximum value of 01f(x)πdx\int_0^1 \frac{f(x)}{\pi}dx can be expressed as pq\frac{p}{q} where p and q are relatively prime positive integers. Find the value of (p + q).

Answer

5

Explanation

Solution

Let the given inequality be xf(y)+yf(x)1x f(y) + y f(x) \leq 1 for all x,y[0,1]x, y \in [0, 1]. The function f:[0,1]Rf: [0, 1] \to \mathbb{R} is continuous. We want to find the maximum value of 01f(x)πdx\int_0^1 \frac{f(x)}{\pi}dx. This is equivalent to finding the maximum value of 01f(x)dx\int_0^1 f(x)dx. Let I=01f(x)dxI = \int_0^1 f(x)dx.

Let's consider the function f(x)=1x2f(x) = \sqrt{1-x^2} for x[0,1]x \in [0, 1]. This function is continuous on [0,1][0, 1]. Let's check if it satisfies the inequality xf(y)+yf(x)1x f(y) + y f(x) \leq 1. Substitute f(x)=1x2f(x) = \sqrt{1-x^2} and f(y)=1y2f(y) = \sqrt{1-y^2}: x1y2+y1x21x \sqrt{1-y^2} + y \sqrt{1-x^2} \leq 1. To check this inequality for x,y[0,1]x, y \in [0, 1], let x=sinαx = \sin \alpha and y=sinβy = \sin \beta, where α,β[0,π/2]\alpha, \beta \in [0, \pi/2]. Then 1x2=1sin2α=cos2α=cosα\sqrt{1-x^2} = \sqrt{1-\sin^2 \alpha} = \sqrt{\cos^2 \alpha} = \cos \alpha (since cosα0\cos \alpha \geq 0 for α[0,π/2]\alpha \in [0, \pi/2]). Similarly, 1y2=cosβ\sqrt{1-y^2} = \cos \beta. The inequality becomes: sinαcosβ+sinβcosα1\sin \alpha \cos \beta + \sin \beta \cos \alpha \leq 1. Using the trigonometric identity for the sum of angles, sin(α+β)=sinαcosβ+cosαsinβ\sin(\alpha+\beta) = \sin \alpha \cos \beta + \cos \alpha \sin \beta. The inequality is sin(α+β)1\sin(\alpha+\beta) \leq 1. Since α,β[0,π/2]\alpha, \beta \in [0, \pi/2], their sum α+β[0,π]\alpha+\beta \in [0, \pi]. The maximum value of sin(θ)\sin(\theta) for θ[0,π]\theta \in [0, \pi] is 1, which occurs at θ=π/2\theta = \pi/2. Thus, sin(α+β)1\sin(\alpha+\beta) \leq 1 is always true for α,β[0,π/2]\alpha, \beta \in [0, \pi/2]. So, the function f(x)=1x2f(x) = \sqrt{1-x^2} is a valid continuous function satisfying the given inequality.

Now let's calculate the integral of this function over [0,1][0, 1]: 01f(x)dx=011x2dx\int_0^1 f(x) dx = \int_0^1 \sqrt{1-x^2} dx. This integral represents the area of a quarter circle of radius 1 in the first quadrant. Let x=sinθx = \sin \theta, so dx=cosθdθdx = \cos \theta d\theta. When x=0x=0, θ=0\theta=0. When x=1x=1, θ=π/2\theta=\pi/2. 011x2dx=0π/21sin2θcosθdθ=0π/2cosθcosθdθ=0π/2cos2θdθ\int_0^1 \sqrt{1-x^2} dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sqrt{1-\sin^2 \theta} \cos \theta d\theta = \int_0^{\pi/2} \cos \theta \cos \theta d\theta = \int_0^{\pi/2} \cos^2 \theta d\theta. Using the identity cos2θ=1+cos(2θ)2\cos^2 \theta = \frac{1+\cos(2\theta)}{2}: 0π/21+cos(2θ)2dθ=[θ2+sin(2θ)4]0π/2\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{1+\cos(2\theta)}{2} d\theta = \left[\frac{\theta}{2} + \frac{\sin(2\theta)}{4}\right]_0^{\pi/2}. Evaluating the definite integral: (π/22+sin(2π/2)4)(02+sin(20)4)=(π4+sin(π)4)(0+sin(0)4)=π4+000=π4\left(\frac{\pi/2}{2} + \frac{\sin(2 \cdot \pi/2)}{4}\right) - \left(\frac{0}{2} + \frac{\sin(2 \cdot 0)}{4}\right) = \left(\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\sin(\pi)}{4}\right) - \left(0 + \frac{\sin(0)}{4}\right) = \frac{\pi}{4} + 0 - 0 - 0 = \frac{\pi}{4}. So, for f(x)=1x2f(x) = \sqrt{1-x^2}, the integral 01f(x)dx=π4\int_0^1 f(x) dx = \frac{\pi}{4}.

The value of 01f(x)πdx\int_0^1 \frac{f(x)}{\pi} dx for this function is 1π01f(x)dx=1ππ4=14\frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^1 f(x) dx = \frac{1}{\pi} \cdot \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{1}{4}. This value 14\frac{1}{4} is a rational number. The problem states that the maximum value can be expressed as pq\frac{p}{q}, where p and q are relatively prime positive integers. Here, p=1p=1 and q=4q=4, which are relatively prime positive integers.

We showed earlier in the thought process that 01f(x)dx1\int_0^1 f(x) dx \leq 1. Since π/40.785<1\pi/4 \approx 0.785 < 1, this is consistent. The existence of a function that yields the value 1/41/4 for the integral 01f(x)πdx\int_0^1 \frac{f(x)}{\pi}dx means the maximum value is at least 1/41/4. It can be shown that 1/41/4 is indeed the maximum value, although proving this rigorously requires techniques beyond finding a single function. Assuming that the problem is well-posed and the form pq\frac{p}{q} suggests that the value obtained from a likely candidate function is the maximum, we accept 1/41/4 as the maximum value.

The maximum value of 01f(x)πdx\int_0^1 \frac{f(x)}{\pi}dx is 14\frac{1}{4}. Comparing this with pq\frac{p}{q}, we have p=1p=1 and q=4q=4. pp and qq are positive integers. They are relatively prime since their greatest common divisor is gcd(1,4)=1\gcd(1, 4) = 1. We need to find the value of (p+q)(p+q). p+q=1+4=5p+q = 1+4 = 5.

The final answer is 14\frac{1}{4}, so p=1,q=4p=1, q=4. p+q=1+4=5p+q = 1+4 = 5.

The final answer is 5.