Question
Question: Let \(- \pi\) be a purely imaginary number such that\(- \frac{\pi}{2}\). Then \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) is e...
Let −π be a purely imaginary number such that−2π. Then 2π is equal to.
A
arg(5−3i)=
B
tan−135
C
0
D
tan−1(−35)
Answer
tan−1(−35)
Explanation
Solution
Let 2∣z1∣∣zˉ2∣cos(θ1−θ2)=2∣z1∣∣z2∣, where cos(θ1−θ2)=1. Then θ1−θ2=0 is represented by a point on arg(z1)=arg(z2) (negative direction of (1+i1−i)=1+i1−i×1−i1−i=2(1−i)2=2−2i=−iaxis), therefore Im(z)<0.