Question
Question: Is it true that \[{\cos ^{ - 1}}x = \dfrac{1}{{\cos x}}\]?...
Is it true that cos−1x=cosx1?
Solution
Hint : We usually denote the inverse of by , which is equal to a1. But this is not the case with trigonometric functions. In trigonometric functions, we have to understand the difference between (sinx)−1 and sin−1x. We will first see what both the expressions are actually equal to and then decide whether cos−1x=cosx1 or not.
Complete step-by-step answer :
We need to check whether cos−1x=cosx1 or not.
We very well know that
cosx1=secx
We see that this expression secx=cosx1 can be written as
secx=cosx1=(cosx)−1
So, our right hand side is equal to (cosx)−1.
Now, we need to check whether cos−1x=(cosx)−1 or not.
We know, cos−1x is itself an inverse trigonometric function. But (cosx)−1 is the reciprocal of a trigonometric function.
Since both cos−1x and (cosx)−1 play different roles, they cannot be equal.
Hence, we conclude that cos−1x=(cosx)−1
Which means cos−1x=cosx1.
So, it is not true that cos−1x=cosx1.
Note : We need to keep in mind that when we are given positive powers, then only we can say that cosnx=(cosx)n i.e. for n⩾1, we can say that cosnx=(cosx)n. But this is not the case with negative powers. For n<0, cosnx and (cosx)n are different. And, so we need to check for these cases, then decide whether cosnx=(cosx)n or (cosx)n=cosnx for the given n.