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Question: In a Boolean Algebra *B*, for all *x*, *y* in *B,*\((x \vee y)^{'} =\)...

In a Boolean Algebra B, for all x, y in B,(x∨y)′=(x \vee y)^{'} =

A

x′∨y′x^{'} \vee y^{'}

B

x′∧y′x^{'} \land y^{'}

C

1

D

None of these

Answer

x′∧y′x^{'} \land y^{'}

Explanation

Solution

It is obvious.