Question
Question: If \(z \ne 0\) is a complex number, then prove that \(\operatorname{Re} \left( z \right) = 0 \Righta...
If z=0 is a complex number, then prove that Re(z)=0⇒Im(z2)=0.
Solution
First of all let the complex number be z=x+iy, where x is the real part and y is the imaginary part. Now, here we are given that the real part is 0. Therefore, put x=0. Now, square the complex number and we will get the imaginary part of z2 as 0.
Complete step by step solution:
In this question, we are given that z is a complex number and it is not equal to 0. Also we are given that the real part of this complex number z is equal to 0 and we need to prove that the imaginary part of the given complex number square is equal to 0.
So, first of all a complex number is a number that contains imaginary numbers and real numbers. The imaginary part is denoted by i.
i=−1
Let z=x+iy be our complex number.
Now, here x is the real part of the complex number and y is the imaginary part.
Now, we are given that the real part of z that is Re(z) is equal to 0. Therefore,
⇒z=0+iy ⇒z=iy
Now, we need to prove that the imaginary part of z2 is equal to zero. So, squaring the above equation, we get
⇒z2=i2y2 - - - - - - (1)
Now, we know that
⇒i=−1 ⇒i2=−1
Therefore, equation (1) becomes
⇒z2=−y2
Here, we can see that there is no imaginary part in the above equation.
Hence, we can say that Im(z2)=0.
Note:
Note that when there is no imaginary part in a complex number, then that number will be purely real. For example: z=x+y is a purely real number as there is no imaginary number.
When there is no real part in a given complex number, then the number is called a purely imaginary number. For example: z=6i is a purely imaginary number as there is no real number.