Question
Question: If z is a complex number such that \(\left| z \right|=1\), prove that \(\dfrac{z-1}{z+1}\) is purely...
If z is a complex number such that ∣z∣=1, prove that z+1z−1 is purely imaginary.
What will be your conclusion if z = 1?
Solution
Hint: Use the fact that if a complex number z is purely imaginary, then z+zˉ=0. Use the fact that zzˉ=∣z∣2 and a+b=aˉ+bˉ and (ba)=bˉaˉ. Consider the expression (z+1z−1)+(z+1z−1) and use the properties mentioned above to prove that the expression is equal to 0. Hence prove that the complex number z+1z−1 is purely imaginary. Infer the result when z =1.
Complete step-by-step answer:
Let A=z+1z−1
We have A+Aˉ=(z+1z−1)+(z+1z−1)
We know that (ba)=bˉaˉ
Using the above property of conjugate of complex numbers, we get
A+Aˉ=z+1z−1+z+1z−1
We know that a+b=aˉ+bˉ
Using the above property of conjugate of complex numbers, we get
A+Aˉ=z+1z−1+zˉ+1zˉ−1
Now, we know that zzˉ=∣z∣2=1
Dividing both sides by z, we get
zˉ=z1
Hence, we have
A+Aˉ=z+1z−1+z1−1z1+1
Multiplying numerator and denominator of the second fraction by z, we get
A+Aˉ=z+1z−1+1−z1+z=z+1z−1−z−1z+1=0
Hence, we have A+Aˉ=0
Hence, we have A is purely imaginary.
Hence, we have z+1z−1 is purely imaginary.
When z = 1, we have z+1z−1=0, which is purely imaginary(0 is considered to be both purely imaginary as well as purely real).
Hence the statement holds true for z = 1.
Note: Alternative Solution:
Since ∣z∣=1, we have z=eiθ
Now, we have z+1z−1=eiθ+1eiθ−1
Multiplying the numerator and denominator of RHS by e−2iθ, we get
z+1z−1=e2iθ+e−2iθe2iθ−e−2iθ
We know that eix+e−ix=2cosx and eix−e−ix=2isinx
Hence, we have
z+1z−1=2cos(2θ)2isin(2θ)=itan(2θ), which is purely imaginary.
Hence, we have
z+1z−1 is purely imaginary.