Question
Question: If \({{z}_{1}}\) and \({{z}_{2}}\) are two complex numbers such that \(\left| {{z}_{1}}+{{z}_{2}} \r...
If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers such that ∣z1+z2∣=∣z1−z2∣ then Argz1−Argz2=
A. 0
B. 2π
C. 3π
D. 4π
Solution
Firstly write z in the complex number form and then substitute it in the given condition, ∣z1+z2∣=∣z1−z2∣. For getting rid of the i, square the equation on both sides or use the distance formula. Now we shall here get a certain condition which will be later used to help in solving Argz1−Argz2 . Now substitute the value of Argz=tan−1(xy) and then find the angle.
Complete step by step solution:
Firstly, we represent z in complex number form.
z1 can be written as x1+iy1
z2 can be written as x2+iy2
Now let us put this in the given statement.
⇒∣z1+z2∣=∣z1−z2∣
Now substitute the values of z1,z2 in the expression.
⇒∣x1+iy1+x2+iy2∣=∣x1+iy1−x2−iy2∣
Now group the like variables together and take the commons out.
⇒∣x1+x2+i(y1+y2)∣=∣x1−x2+i(y1−y2)∣
Now represent the expression in the distance formula.
⇒(x1+x2)2+(y1+y2)2=(x1−x2)2+(y1−y2)2
Now upon squaring on both sides, we get,
⇒x12+x22+2x1x2+y12+y22+2y1y2=x12+x22−2x1x2+y12+y22−2y1y2
Upon canceling the common terms on both sides of the expression we get,
⇒2x1x2+2y1y2=−2x1x2−2y1y2
On further evaluating we get,
⇒4x1x2+4y1y2=0
We can rewrite this as,
⇒x1x2+y1y2=0
Now shall solve, argz1−argz2
We can write argz1−argz2 as arg(z2z1)
Now let us again substitute the values ofz1,z2 in complex number form.
⇒arg(x2+iy2x1+iy1)
Now let us rationalize the denominator.
Upon rationalizing we get,
⇒arg(x2+iy2x1+iy1×x2−iy2x2−iy2)
Now evaluate this expression.
⇒arg(x22+y22(x1+iy1)(x2−iy2))
Now simplify the numerator part.
⇒arg(x22+y22x1x2−iy2x1+iy1x2+y1y2)
Now rearrange the terms.
⇒arg(x22+y22x1x2+y1y2+i(y1x2−y2x1))
Now upon writing this in the form, Argz=tan−1(xy)
We get,
⇒tan−1(x1x2+y1y2x1y2−x2y1)
But we have proved that,
x1x2+y1y2=0
Now on substituting that we get,
⇒tan−1(0x1y2−x2y1)
We know that anything divided by zero is infinity.
⇒tan−1(∞)
This is equal to 2π
Hence, Argz1−Argz2 when ∣z1+z2∣=∣z1−z2∣ is equal to 2π
So, the correct answer is “Option B”.
Note: The inverse of tan is nothing but arctan. The inverse functions in trigonometry are also known as arc functions or anti trigonometric functions. They are majorly known as arc functions because they are most used to find the length of the arc needed to get the given or specified value. We can convert a function into an inverse function and vice versa.