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Question: If you flip a fair coin \[10\] times, what is the probability that it lands on heads exactly \[4\] t...

If you flip a fair coin 1010 times, what is the probability that it lands on heads exactly 44 times?

Explanation

Solution

In order to solve this question, we will first find out the probability of getting a head in a single toss. After that, using the formula of Binomial probability, we will find out the probability of getting exactly 44 heads in total when a fair coin is tossed 1010 times.
Formulas used:
Probability of an event, P(E)=Favourable outcomesTotal outcomesP\left( E \right) = \dfrac{{Favourable{\text{ }}outcomes}}{{Total{\text{ }}outcomes}}
Binomial Probability is given by:
nCrpr(1p)nr{}^n{C_r} \cdot {p^r} \cdot {\left( {1 - p} \right)^{n - r}}
Here nCr{}^n{C_r} indicates the number of different combinations of rr objects from a set of nn objects.
pp is the probability of success on an individual trial.

Complete step by step answer:
It is given that a coin is tossed 1010 times
And we have to find the probability of getting exactly 44 heads
Now first we will find out the probability of getting a head in a single toss,
We know that
When a single coin is tossed, then the outcomes are \left\\{ {H,T} \right\\}
So, total number of outcomes =2 = 2
And favourable outcome (of getting a head) =1 = 1
Now we know that,
Probability of an event, P(E)=Favourable outcomesTotal outcomesP\left( E \right) = \dfrac{{Favourable{\text{ }}outcomes}}{{Total{\text{ }}outcomes}}
Therefore, probability of getting a head in a single toss will be
p=12p = \dfrac{1}{2}
Now using Binomial Theorem of Probability,
The probability of getting heads exactly 44 times will be
nCrpr(1p)nr{}^n{C_r} \cdot {p^r} \cdot {\left( {1 - p} \right)^{n - r}}
Here, n=10,r=4n = 10,r = 4
Therefore, the probability of getting exactly r=4r = 4 heads in total n=10n = 10 tosses, we get
10C4p4(1p)104{}^{10}{C_4} \cdot {p^4} \cdot {\left( {1 - p} \right)^{10 - 4}}
10C4p4(1p)6\Rightarrow {}^{10}{C_4} \cdot {p^4} \cdot {\left( {1 - p} \right)^6}
On substituting the value of pp we get,
10C4(12)4(112)6\Rightarrow {}^{10}{C_4} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^4} \cdot {\left( {1 - \dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^6}
10C4(12)4(12)6\Rightarrow {}^{10}{C_4} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^4} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^6}
We know that
am×an=am+n{a^m} \times {a^n} = {a^{m + n}}
Therefore, we get
10C4(12)10\Rightarrow {}^{10}{C_4} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
Now we know that
nCr=n!(nr)! r!{}^n{C_r} = \dfrac{{n!}}{{\left( {n - r} \right)!{\text{ }} \cdot r!}}
So, we get
10!(104)! 4!(12)10\Rightarrow \dfrac{{10!}}{{\left( {10 - 4} \right)!{\text{ }} \cdot 4!}} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
10!6! 4!(12)10\Rightarrow \dfrac{{10!}}{{6!{\text{ }} \cdot 4!}} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
Now, 10!10! can be written as 10×9×8×7×6!10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7 \times 6!
Therefore, we get
10×9×8×7×6!6! 4!(12)10\Rightarrow \dfrac{{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7 \times 6!}}{{6!{\text{ }} \cdot 4!}} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
On cancelling the terms, we get
10×9×8×74!(12)10\Rightarrow \dfrac{{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7}}{{4!}} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
Now the value of 4!=244! = 24
Therefore, we get
10×9×8×724(12)10\Rightarrow \dfrac{{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7}}{{24}} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
On writing the factors of 1010 and 2424 we get
2×5×9×8×72×2×2×3(12)10\Rightarrow \dfrac{{2 \times 5 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7}}{{2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 3}} \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
On dividing the terms and cancelling the like terms, we get
5×3×2×7(12)10\Rightarrow 5 \times 3 \times 2 \times 7 \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^{10}}
5×3×7(12)9\Rightarrow 5 \times 3 \times 7 \cdot {\left( {\dfrac{1}{2}} \right)^9}
5×3×729\Rightarrow \dfrac{{5 \times 3 \times 7}}{{{2^9}}}
On multiplying, we get
10529\Rightarrow \dfrac{{105}}{{{2^9}}}
which is the required answer.

Note:
In the question, the concept of Binomial probability is used because Binomial probability refers to the probability of exactly rr successes on nn repeated trials in an experiment which has two possible outcomes (commonly called a binomial experiment). Also note that if pp is the probability of success of a single trial, then (1p)\left( {1 - p} \right) is the probability of failure of a single trial which is also represented by qq .Hence the formula of Binomial probability becomes nCrprqnr{}^n{C_r} \cdot {p^r} \cdot {q^{n - r}}