Question
Question: If \(y=\text{cose}{{\text{c}}^{-1}}x,x>1\), then show that \(x\left( {{x}^{2}}-1 \right)\dfrac{{{d}^...
If y=cosec−1x,x>1, then show that x(x2−1)dx2d2y+(2x2−1)dxdy=0
Solution
We are given a function as: y=cosec−1x,x>1. So, differentiation the given function with respect to x to get the value of dxdy by using the formula: dxd(cosec−1x)=xx2−1−1.
Then, differentiate dxdy with respect to x and get the value of dx2d2y by using quotient rule of differentiation, i.e. dxd(g(x)f(x))=g2(x)f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x). Now, substitute the values of dx2d2y and dxdy in the equation: x(x2−1)dx2d2y+(2x2−1)dxdy and prove that the equation is equals to zero.
Complete step by step answer:
Since we have a function: y=cosec−1x......(1)
Now, using the formula dxd(cosec−1x)=xx2−1−1, differentiate equation (1) with respect to x, we get:
dxdy=xx2−1−1......(2)
So, we have the value of dxdy.
Now, to get the value of dx2d2y , differentiate equation (2) with respect to x, we get:
dx2d2y=dxd(xx2−1−1)......(3)
As we know, by quotient rule of differentiation:
dxd(g(x)f(x))=g2(x)f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x)
By using this formula, we can write equation (3) as:
dx2d2y=(xx2−1)2(dxd(−1)×xx2−1)−((−1)×dxd(xx2−1))......(3)
Since we know that:
dxd(f(x)g(x))=f′(x)g(x)+f(x)g(x)
So, we can write equation (3) as:
dx2d2y=(xx2−1)2(dxd(−1)×xx2−1)−((−1)×((dxdx)x2−1+x(dxdx2−1)))......(4)
As we know that:
[dxda=0;dxdx=1;dxdx=2x1;dxdf(g(x))=f′(g(x))g′(x)]
By applying the above differentiation rules in equation (4), we get: