Question
Question: If \[y=\tan^{-1} \left( \dfrac{ax-b}{bx+a} \right) \], prove that \[\dfrac{dy}{dx} =\dfrac{1}{\left(...
If y=tan−1(bx+aax−b), prove that dxdy=(1+x2)1
Explanation
Solution
Hint: In this question it is given that if y=tan−1(bx+aax−b),then we have to prove that dxdy=(1+x2)1.
So to find the solution we have to simply differentiate the given function with respect to ‘x’ and during integration we have to use some formulas, which are,
- If f(x) be the the function of x, then, dxdtan−1(f(x))=1+(f(x))21⋅dxd(f(x))
- If u and v are the the function of x, then, dxd(vu)=v2vdxdu−udxdv
Complete step-by-step solution:
Given,
y=tan−1(bx+aax−b)
Now differentiating both side w.r.t ‘x’, we get,
dxdy=dxd(tan−1(bx+aax−b))
=1+(bx+aax−b)21⋅dxd(bx+aax−b) [by using formula (1)]
=(bx+a)2+(ax−b)2(bx+a)2⋅(bx+a)2(bx+a)⋅dxd(ax−b)−(ax−b)⋅dxd(bx+a) [ by using formula (2)]
=(bx+a)2+(ax−b)2(bx+a)2⋅(bx+a)2(bx+a)⋅a−(ax−b)⋅b
=(bx+a)2+(ax−b)2a(bx+a)−b(ax−b)
=(bx+a)2+(ax−b)2abx+a2−abx+b2
Now as we know that (p+q)2=p2+2pq+q2 and (p−q)2=p2−2pq+q2, so by these identity we can write the above equation as,
dxdy=b2x2+2abx+a2+a2x2−2abx+b2a2+b2
=b2x2+a2x2+b2+a2a2+b2
=(b2+a2)x2+(b2+a2)(b2+a2)
=(b2+a2)(x2+1)(b2+a2) [taking a2+b2 from the denominator]
=(x2+1)1
=(1+x2)1
Therefore, we have,
dxdy=(1+x2)1
Hence proved.
Note: While proving this kind of question you need to know the basic formulas of derivative that we have already mentioned in the hint portion also derivative of any polynomial, ax2±bx±c is can be written as,
dxd(ax2±bx±c)
=dxd(ax2)±dxd(bx)±dxd(c)
=adxd(x2)±b
Where a,b and c are the constant and the derivative of a constant term is 0 and if any constant is multiplied with a variable then the derivative of that constant term can be taken outside.