Question
Question: If we have an inverse trigonometric expression \({{\cos }^{-1}}x+{{\cos }^{-1}}y+{{\cos }^{-1}}z=\pi...
If we have an inverse trigonometric expression cos−1x+cos−1y+cos−1z=π , then prove that x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1
Solution
From the question we have cos−1x+cos−1y+cos−1z=π and we have to prove x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1 using the given condition so we will assume cos−1x=A and cos−1y=B and simplify it further using the expressions π−cos−1z=cos−1(−z) and cos(A+B)=cosAcosB−sinAsinB and sin2θ+cos2θ=1.
Complete step-by-step solution:
Now from considering the question we have cos−1x+cos−1y+cos−1z=π. Let us cos−1x=A and cos−1y=B and write this simply asA+B=π−cos−1z .
As we know that the value of π−cos−1z=cos−1(−z) we will use it and simplify it and write it as A+B=cos−1(−z).
By applying the inverse of cosine function on both sides we will have cos(A+B)=(−z) .
As we know that cos(A+B)=cosAcosB−sinAsinB. We can use this by deriving the values of respective sine functions using the identity sin2θ+cos2θ=1.
Now we can say that sinA=1−x2 and sinB=1−y2 because cosA=x and cosB=y and they are connected with the relationsin2θ+cos2θ=1 .
By using these values in cos(A+B)=(−z) we will have xy−1−x21−y2=−z .
This expression can be simplified as 1−x21−y2=xy+z .
By squaring on both sides we will have (1−x21−y2)2=(xy+z)2⇒(1−x2)(1−y2)=(xy+z)2 .
By expanding this we will have (1+x2y2−y2−x2)=(x2y2+z2+2xyz) .
By further simplifying this we will have (1−y2−x2)=(z2+2xyz) .
By transforming some terms from right to left and some from right to left we will have x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1.
Hence it is proved that when cos−1x+cos−1y+cos−1z=π , the expression x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1 is valid.
Note: While answering this type of questions we should keep 3 main points in our mind what we have, what is to be proved, and which concepts and formulae can be used if we make a mistake and write π−cos−1z=cos−1z then we will have xy−1−x21−y2=z which by simplifying we will have x2+y2+z2−2xyz=1 which is completely wrong.