Question
Question: If we are given a trigonometric expression as \(f\left( x \right)={{\cos }^{-1}}\left( \dfrac{2\cos ...
If we are given a trigonometric expression as f(x)=cos−1(132cosx−3sinx) then, [f′(x)2] is equal to
(a) 1+x
(b) 1 + 2x
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) 0
Solution
Hint: We will apply here the formula of basic identity in trigonometry which is given by sin2(p)+cos2(p)=1 or sin2(p)=1−cos2(p). Also we will use the formula cos(p)cos(x)−sin(p)sin(x)=cos(p+x) in order to solve the question further.
Complete step-by-step answer:
We will consider f(x)=cos−1(132cosx−3sinx)...(i).
We can also write this equation as f(x)=cos−1(132cosx−133sinx) or f(x)=cos−1(132cosx−133sinx).
Now, we will substitute the value cos(p)=132. This results in p=cos−1(132).
As we know that cos(p)cos(x)−sin(p)sin(x)=cos(p+x) therefore, to convert the equation f(x)=cos−1(132cosx−133sinx) into cos(p)cos(x)−sin(p)sin(x)=cos(p+x) form we will need to find the value of sin(p).
For this we will apply the formula of basic identity in trigonometry. The formula is given by sin2(p)+cos2(p)=1 or sin2(p)=1−cos2(p). Now we will substitute the value of cos(p)=132 into this formula. Therefore, we get sin2(p)=1−cos2(p)⇒sin2(p)=1−(132)2⇒sin2(p)=1−134⇒sin2(p)=1313−4⇒sin2(p)=139⇒sin(p)=139⇒sin(p)=±133
Now, we have two values of sine given by sin(p)=133 and sin(p)=−133.
We will reject the negative value here as it will not satisfy the formula sin2(p)+cos2(p)=1. Therefore, we now have cos(p)=132 and sin(p)=133.
Now we will substitute these values in equation f(x)=cos−1(132cosx−133sinx). Thus, we get
f(x)=cos−1(cospcosx−sinpsinx)
At this step we will use the formula given by cos(p)cos(x)−sin(p)sin(x)=cos(p+x). This results into f(x)=cos−1(cos(p+x)). As we know that cos−1(cosp)=p therefore, we get f(x)=p+x.
Now, we will differentiate this equation with respect to x. So, we now get dxd(f(x))=dxd(p+x)⇒dxd(f(x))=dxdp+dxdx
As we know that dxdx=1 therefore we get dxd(f(x))=dxdp+1. Also, as we know that p works as a constant here because we are differentiating with respect to x only therefore, by the fact that differentiating a constant with respect to x, we will use the formula dxdp=0 in the equation dxd(f(x))=dxdp+1.
Therefore, we get dxd(f(x))=1. As we know that dxd(f(x))=f′(x) therefore, we have f′(x)=1.
Now, we will apply the square on both sides of the equation f′(x)=1. Thus we get [f′(x)]2=(1)2 or [f′(x)2]=1.
Therefore, the correct option is (d).
Note: As we have substituted cos(p)=132 in equation f(x)=cos−1(132cosx−133sinx) Instead of this we can also substitute sin(p)=133 and get cos(p)=132 after solving. We can also chose the form of the sin(p)cos(x)−cos(p)sin(x)=sin(p−x) instead of cos(p)cos(x)−sin(p)sin(x)=cos(p+x) for the conversion of equation (i). But as we can clearly see that there is an inverse cosine term on the outside of the expression also we know that cos−1(cosp)=p therefore we have chosen cos(p)cos(x)−sin(p)sin(x)=cos(p+x) as for the conversion in this question.