Question
Question: If the expression \(\dfrac{1}{q+r},\dfrac{1}{r+p},\dfrac{1}{p+q}\) are in A.P., then: A. p, q, r ...
If the expression q+r1,r+p1,p+q1 are in A.P., then:
A. p, q, r are in A.P.
B. p2,q2,r2 are in A.P.
C. p1,q1,r1 are in A.P.
D. None of these
Solution
- Hint:If three numbers (a, b, c) are in Arithmetic Progression then the common difference between terms is equal. It means b – a and c – b are equal to each other. Now, get the relation in p, q, r to get the answer.
Complete step-by-step solution -
It is given that q+r1,r+p1,p+q1 are in A.P. so, we need to determine the relation in p, q and r.
As we know that differences in successive terms are equal in A.P. which is known as the common difference of an A.P.
Hence, if three numbers a, b, c are in A.P. then
b – a = c – b……………..(i)
So, terms q+r1,r+p1,p+q1 are given in A.P.
Hence from equation (i), we get
r+p1−q+r1=p+q1−r+p1
Now, taking L.C.M in both the sides, we get
(r+p)(q+r)(q+r)−(r+p)=(p+q)(r+p)(r+p)−(p+q)⇒(r+p)(q+r)q+r−r−p=(p+q)(r+p)r+p−p−q⇒(r+p)(q+r)q−p=(p+q)(r+p)r−q
Cancelling (r + p) from both the sides, we get
q+rq−p=p+qr−q
On cross multiplying, we get
(q−p)(p+q)=(r−q)(q+r)⇒(q−p)(q+p)=(r−q)(r+q)..........(ii)
Now, we can use an algebraic identity given as
(a−b)(a+b)=a2−b2
Hence, equation (ii) can be written as
q2−p2=r2−q2.....(iii)
Now, adding p2+q2 to both the sides, we get
q2−p2+p2+q2=r2−q2+p2+q22q2=r2+p2...............(iv)
Now, from the equation (ii), and (iii), we can observe that p2,q2,r2 are in A.P, as it is satisfying condition of equation (i).
Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.
Note: Another approach to get relations among p, q, r would be using relation 2b=a+c, if a, b, c are in A.P. As we know if a, b, c are in A.P. then b−a=c−b⇒2b=a+c. So, one can apply 2b=a+c relation to get the required result.
Don’t miss any term p, q and r while doing calculation. And do not change the positions of the given terms in the problem while using the relation, b−a=c−b⇒2b=a+c otherwise the whole solution will ruin.