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Question: If the equations \[{{a}_{1}}x+{{b}_{1}}y+{{c}_{1}}=0~\] and \[{{a}_{2}}x+{{b}_{2}}y+{{c}_{2}}=0~\] r...

If the equations a1x+b1y+c1=0 {{a}_{1}}x+{{b}_{1}}y+{{c}_{1}}=0~ and a2x+b2y+c2=0 {{a}_{2}}x+{{b}_{2}}y+{{c}_{2}}=0~ represent two perpendicular lines then prove that a1a2+b1b2=0{{a}_{1}}{{a}_{2}}+{{b}_{1}}{{b}_{2}}=0.

Explanation

Solution

We start solving the problems by finding the slope of the lines a1x+b1y+c1=0 {{a}_{1}}x+{{b}_{1}}y+{{c}_{1}}=0~ and a2x+b2y+c2=0 {{a}_{2}}x+{{b}_{2}}y+{{c}_{2}}=0~using the fact that slope of a line of the form ax+by+c=0ax+by+c=0 is given as m=ab=\dfrac{-a}{b} that is the division of the negative of the coefficient of x with coefficient of y. Now, we use the fact that if two lines are perpendicular then m1m2=1{{m}_{1}}\cdot {{m}_{2}}=-1 (Where m1{{m}_{1}} is the slope of line 1 and m2{{m}_{2}} is the slope of line 2) and make subsequent calculations to complete the required proof.

Complete step by step answer:
According to the problem, if the lines a1x+b1y+c1=0 {{a}_{1}}x+{{b}_{1}}y+{{c}_{1}}=0~ and a2x+b2y+c2=0 {{a}_{2}}x+{{b}_{2}}y+{{c}_{2}}=0~ are perpendicular, then we have to prove that a1a2+b1b2=0{{a}_{1}}{{a}_{2}}+{{b}_{1}}{{b}_{2}}=0.
We know that the slope of the line with the equation of the form ax+by+c=0ax+by+c=0 is ab\dfrac{-a}{b}. Now, we use this result to find the slope of the lines a1x+b1y+c1=0 {{a}_{1}}x+{{b}_{1}}y+{{c}_{1}}=0~ and a2x+b2y+c2=0 {{a}_{2}}x+{{b}_{2}}y+{{c}_{2}}=0~.
Slope of line 1 ax1+by1+c1=0a{{x}_{1}}+b{{y}_{1}}+{{c}_{1}}=0 is a1b1\dfrac{-{{a}_{1}}}{{{b}_{1}}}.
Similarly, the slope of line 2 ax2+by2+c2a{{x}_{2}}+b{{y}_{2}}+{{c}_{2}} is a2b2\dfrac{-{{a}_{2}}}{{{b}_{2}}}.
Now, as these two lines are perpendicular to each other, hence, using the formula given in the hint, we can write as follows
(b1a1)(b2a2)=1\left( \dfrac{-{{b}_{1}}}{{{a}_{1}}} \right)\cdot \left( \dfrac{-{{b}_{2}}}{{{a}_{2}}} \right)=-1.
b1a1b2a2=1\Rightarrow \dfrac{{{b}_{1}}}{{{a}_{1}}}\cdot \dfrac{{{b}_{2}}}{{{a}_{2}}}=-1.
b1b2a1a2=1\Rightarrow \dfrac{{{b}_{1}}{{b}_{2}}}{{{a}_{1}}{{a}_{2}}}=-1.
b1b2=a1a2\Rightarrow {{b}_{1}}{{b}_{2}}=-{{a}_{1}}{{a}_{2}}.
b1b2+a1a2=0\Rightarrow {{b}_{1}}{{b}_{2}}+{{a}_{1}}{{a}_{2}}=0.

Hence, we have proved that a1a2+b1b2=0{{a}_{1}}{{a}_{2}}+{{b}_{1}}{{b}_{2}}=0.

Note: We should not confuse the formula of slope of the line of the form ax+by+c=0ax+by+c=0 as ba\dfrac{-b}{a}. This can be derived by converting the given line to the slope form y=mx+cy=mx+c and comparing it with the coefficient of x in each equation. We should confuse the condition of perpendicular lines with the condition of parallel lines.