Question
Question: If the equations \[{{a}_{1}}x+{{b}_{1}}y+{{c}_{1}}=0~\] and \[{{a}_{2}}x+{{b}_{2}}y+{{c}_{2}}=0~\] r...
If the equations a1x+b1y+c1=0 and a2x+b2y+c2=0 represent two perpendicular lines then prove that a1a2+b1b2=0.
Solution
We start solving the problems by finding the slope of the lines a1x+b1y+c1=0 and a2x+b2y+c2=0 using the fact that slope of a line of the form ax+by+c=0 is given as m=b−a that is the division of the negative of the coefficient of x with coefficient of y. Now, we use the fact that if two lines are perpendicular then m1⋅m2=−1 (Where m1 is the slope of line 1 and m2 is the slope of line 2) and make subsequent calculations to complete the required proof.
Complete step by step answer:
According to the problem, if the lines a1x+b1y+c1=0 and a2x+b2y+c2=0 are perpendicular, then we have to prove that a1a2+b1b2=0.
We know that the slope of the line with the equation of the form ax+by+c=0 is b−a. Now, we use this result to find the slope of the lines a1x+b1y+c1=0 and a2x+b2y+c2=0 .
Slope of line 1 ax1+by1+c1=0 is b1−a1.
Similarly, the slope of line 2 ax2+by2+c2 is b2−a2.
Now, as these two lines are perpendicular to each other, hence, using the formula given in the hint, we can write as follows
(a1−b1)⋅(a2−b2)=−1.
⇒a1b1⋅a2b2=−1.
⇒a1a2b1b2=−1.
⇒b1b2=−a1a2.
⇒b1b2+a1a2=0.
Hence, we have proved that a1a2+b1b2=0.
Note: We should not confuse the formula of slope of the line of the form ax+by+c=0 as a−b. This can be derived by converting the given line to the slope form y=mx+c and comparing it with the coefficient of x in each equation. We should confuse the condition of perpendicular lines with the condition of parallel lines.