Question
Question: If \(\sum_{r = 0}^{2n}a_{r}\) (x – 2)<sup>r</sup> = \(\sum_{r = 0}^{2n}b_{r}\) (x – 3)<sup>r</sup> a...
If ∑r=02nar (x – 2)r = ∑r=02nbr (x – 3)r and ak = 1 for all k ³ n, then bn is equal to –
n+1C2n+1
2n+1Cn+1
2n+1Cn+2
None of these
2n+1Cn+1
Solution
Clearly, bn is the coefficient of (x – 3)n in the expression ∑r=02nbr (x – 3)r. Therefore,
bn=Coefficient of (x–3)n in(∑r=02nar(x−2)r) …(1)
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n in
{∑r=0n−1ar(x−2)r+∑r=n2nar(x−2)r}
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n in
{∑r=0n−1ar(x−2)r+∑r=n2n(x−2)r}
(Q ak = 1 for all k ³ n)
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n in ∑r=n2n(x−2)r
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n in
[(x−2)n{(x−2)−1(x−2)n+1−1}]
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n in
{x−3(x−2)2n+1−(x−2)n}
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n+1 in {(x – 2)2n+1 – (x – 2)n}
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n+1 in (x – 2)2n+1
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n+1 in [(x – 3) + 1]2n + 1
= Coefficient of (x – 3)n+1 in
{∑r=02n+12n+1Cr(x−3)r}
= 2n+1Cn+1.
Hence (2) is correct answer.