Question
Question: If \(R\to R\) be a function we sat that f has Property 1: If \[\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0},\dfra...
If R→R be a function we sat that f has
Property 1: If h→0lim,∣h∣f(h)−f(0) exists and is finite.
Property 2: If h→0lim,h2f(h)−f(0) exists and is finite.
Then, which of the following options is/are correct.
Solution
To solve this question, we will consider all options separately and check which one of them satisfy property 1 or 2. Also, in mid of solution we will use the fact that, if h→0lim,hnhm and m n then h→0lim,hnhm=0 and if m < n then h→0lim,hnhm = 01 = ∞ does not exist.
While calculating options having sin x we will use formula of limit with sin which is given as h→0lim,xsinx =1
Complete step-by-step answer:
Given,
Property 1: If h→0lim, ∣h∣f(h)−f(0) exists and is finite.
Property 2: If h→0lim, h2f(h)−f(0) exists and is finite.
To solve this question, we will consider all options one by one and see which one is correct.
Consider option A.
A. f(x)=x32 has property 1.
Let us compute h→0lim, ∣h∣f(h)−f(0) for f(x)=x32
Substituting f(h)=h32 in above we get:
h→0lim, ∣h∣f(h)−f(0) and f(0) = 0 so we have
h→0lim, ∣h∣h32−0⇒h→0lim, ∣h∣h32
Now,
h=h21⇒h→0lim, ∣h∣21h32
Now because 32 > 21
So, power of numerator is bigger than power of denominator and as h →0 so whether h →0+⇒h →0− the numerator of ∣h∣21h32 is always greater than its denominator.
⇒h→0lim, ∣h∣h32=0 as we have a numerator bigger power.
So h→0lim, ∣h∣f(h)−f(0) exist and is finite for f(x)=x32
So, option A is correct.
A. f(x)=x32 has property 1.
Let us compute h→0lim,∣h∣f(h)−f(0) for f(x)=x32
Substituting f(h)=h32 in above we get:
h→0lim,∣h∣f(h)−f(0) and f(0) = 0 so we have