Question
Question: If \(\Phi \left( N \right)\) is the number of integers which are less than \(N\) and prime to it, an...
If Φ(N) is the number of integers which are less than N and prime to it, and if x is prime to N, show that: xΦ(N)−1≡0(modN).
Solution
We will use the Euler’s theorem to prove the given congruence. Euler’s theorem states that for a positive integer n,aΦ(n)≡1(modn) for any integer a relatively prime to n. We will apply this theorem in the given situation.
Complete step by step answer:
Let us consider the given problem. Suppose that N is an integer and Φ(N) is the number of integers which are less than N and prime to it. Now we need to show that if x is prime to N,xΦ(N)−1≡0(modN).
Here, we have a theorem called Euler’s theorem which states that for a positive integer n,aΦ(n)≡1(modn) for any integer a relatively prime to n.
Now, it is just a matter of comparing the question with the above theorem named Euler’s theorem.
So, in our case, n=N and therefore, Φ(n)=Φ(N) and a=x.
Let us rewrite the Euler’s theorem using the given information.
We will get, for a positive integer N,xΦ(N)≡1(modN) for any integer x relatively prime to N. Also, Φ(N) is the number of integers less than N and relatively prime to it.
So, we have xΦ(N)≡1(modN).
Now, let us add a −1 on both the left-hand side and the right-hand side of the above congruence.
We will get xΦ(N)−1≡(1−1)(modN).
Therefore, we will get xΦ(N)−1≡0(modN).
Hence it is proved that xΦ(N)−1≡0(modN).
Note: Let us recall the Fermat’s Little theorem for we need it very often. It states as follows: Let p be a prime. Then ap−1≡1(modp) for any integer a not divisible by p. This theorem is also as important as Euler's theorem.