Question
Question: If \(\left( \operatorname{secA}+\operatorname{tanA} \right)\left( \operatorname{secB}+\operatorname{...
If (secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)=(secA−tanA)(secB−tanB)(secC−tanC) prove that each is equal to ±1.
Solution
Hint: Relate the identity sec2θ−tan2θ=1 with the identity a2−b2=(a−b)(a+b) and express it as (secθ−tanθ)(secθ+tanθ)=1. Put θ=A,B,C in this expression and multiply them and hence, use the given result in the problem to prove the given statement.
Complete step-by-step answer:
As we know the trigonometric identity related to sec,tan is given as
sec2θ−tan2θ=1 ………………… (i)
As, we know the algebraic identity of a2−b2 can be given as
a2−b2=(a−b)(a+b)………………… (ii)
So, applying the relation of equation (ii) with the equation (i), we get
(secθ−tanθ)(secθ+tanθ)=1…………….(iii)
Now, coming to the question, it is given that the term (secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC),(secA−tanA)(secB−tanB)(secC−tanC) are equal to each other, then we need to prove that both will be equal to±1.
So, we have
(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)=(secA−tanA)(secB−tanB)(secC−tanC) ………(iv)
Now, put θ=A,B,C in the equation (iii) to get the equations related to equation (iv).
So, we get equations as
If θ=A
(secA−tanA)(secA+tanA)=1………… (v)
If θ=B
(secB−tanB)(secB+tanB)=1 ………………(vi)
If θ=C
(secC−tanC)(secC+tanC)=1 ………………(vii)
Now, we can multiply the equations (v), (vi) and (vii) and hence, we get
(secA−tanA)(secA+tanB)(secB−tanB)(secB+tanB)(secC−tanC)(secC+tanC)=1
Now, rearrange the terms just similar to equation (iv), hence, we can rewrite the above expression as
[(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)][(secA−tanA)(secB−tanB)(secC−tanC)]=1 …………… (viii)
Now, we know that the values of terms written in big brackets of the above equations are equal from the equation (iv). So, we can replace one by another. So, we get
⇒(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)=1⇒(secA+tanA)2(secB+tanB)2(secC+tanC)2=1⇒[(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)]2=1
And hence, taking square root to both sides, we get
(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)=±1 …………….. (ix)
Now, we know that the above term in LHS will be equal to (secA−tanA)(secB−tanB)(secC−tanC) from the equation (iv). Hence, we get the values of both as
(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)=(secA−tanA)(secB−tanB)(secC−tanC)=±1
Hence, it is proved.
Note: Another approach for solving the question would be that we can multiply both sides by
(secA−tanA)(secB−tanB)(secC−tanC)⇒(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC), And hence, we get
Let us multiply given relation by
(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)
Hence, we get
[(secA+tanA)(secB+tanB)(secC+tanC)]2=(sec2A−tan2A)(sec2B−tan2B)(sec2C−tan2C)
Where, use (a−b)(a+b)=a2−b2.
Now, replace R.H.S of above equation by 1, with using trigonometric identity
(sec2θ+tan2θ)=1.
One may change secθ to cosθ1,tanθ to cosθsinθ and hence, can use identity sin2θ+cos2θ=1 . So, it can be another approach for the question.
Observing the identity sin2θ−cos2θ=1 of the form of (secθ−tanθ)(secθ+tanθ)=1 is the key point of the question.