Solveeit Logo

Question

Question: If f(x) = x<sup>a</sup>log x and f(0) = 0, then the value of a for which Rolle's theorem can be appl...

If f(x) = xalog x and f(0) = 0, then the value of a for which Rolle's theorem can be applied in [0, 1] is –

A

– 2

B

– 1

C

0

D

12\frac{1}{2}

Answer

12\frac{1}{2}

Explanation

Solution

If f(x) satisfy roll's theorem in [0, 1]

Ž f(x) must be continuous in [0, 1]

Ž f(0 +) = f(0)

Ž limh0\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}ha logh = 0

Ž limh0\lim _ { h \rightarrow 0 } loghhα\frac{\log h}{h–\alpha} = 0

Ž limh0\lim_{h \rightarrow 0} 1/hαhα1\frac{1/h}{–\alpha h^{–\alpha –1}} = 0

Ž limh0hαα\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}–\frac{h^{\alpha}}{\alpha} = 0

for continuous at x = 0, a > 0

\ a = ½