Question
Question: If f(x) = x<sup>a</sup>log x and f(0) = 0, then the value of a for which Rolle's theorem can be appl...
If f(x) = xalog x and f(0) = 0, then the value of a for which Rolle's theorem can be applied in [0, 1] is –
A
– 2
B
– 1
C
0
D
21
Answer
21
Explanation
Solution
If f(x) satisfy roll's theorem in [0, 1]
Ž f(x) must be continuous in [0, 1]
Ž f(0 +) = f(0)
Ž limh→0ha logh = 0
Ž limh→0 h–αlogh = 0
Ž limh→0 –αh–α–11/h = 0
Ž limh→0–αhα = 0
for continuous at x = 0, a > 0
\ a = ½