Question
Question: If \[f\left( x \right) = {x^n}\], then find the value of \[f\left( 1 \right) + \dfrac{{{f^1}\left( 1...
If f(x)=xn, then find the value of f(1)+1!f1(1)+2!f2(1)+......+n!fn(1), where fr(x) denotes the rth derivative of f(x) w.r.t. x.
Solution
The equation F(x,y)=0are sequential (n times) differentiation when nth order derivatives of an implicit function are found. At each step, after appropriate substitutions and transformations, we will obtain an explicit expression for the derivative, which depends only on the variables x and y, i.e. the derivatives in the form of y′=f1(x,y),y′′=f2(x,y),…,y(n)=fn(x,y)
This process can continue but notice that we will start getting zero for all derivatives after this point.
Sometimes, we are able to see a pattern in successive derivatives of a given function. In such kinds of problems, we need to consider those patterns to solve them.
Complete step-by-step answer:
The function provided in the question is f(x)=xn
And we need to calculate the value of f(1)+1!f1(1)+2!f2(1)+......+n!fn(1)
So f(x), and all derivatives of f(x)has to be calculated with the value of x=1.
So, if f(x)=xn then f(1)=1n=1
We calculate several first derivatives:
So, first derivative of the equation is equal to f1(x)=nxn−1 then f1(1)=n1n−1=n
So, second derivative of the equation is equal to f2(x)=n(n−1)xn−2 then f2(1)=n(n−1)1n−2=n(n−1)
So, third derivative of the equation is equal to f3(x)=n(n−1)(n−2)xn−3 then f3(1)=n(n−1)(n−2)1n−3=n(n−1)(n−2)
Each derivative gives us a pattern.
Hence it becomes easy to establish a general expression for the nth order derivative by looking at the pattern:
fn(x)=n(n−1)(n−2).........................[n−(n−1)]xn−n then
fn(1)=n(n−1)(n−2).........................[n−(n−1)]1n−n=n(n−1)(n−2).............1
Now we will calculate the value of f(1)+1!f1(1)+2!f2(1)+......+n!fn(1)by substituting the value of f(1), f1(1), f2(1)…………………fn(1).
So, the equation is converted to f(1)+1!f1(1)+2!f2(1)+......+n!fn(1)
=1+1!n+2!n(n−1)+......+n!n(n−1)(n−2).............1
The formula of combination is nCr=(n−r)!r!n!, So replacing these in the above equation.
=1+nC1+nC2+......+nCn
=nC0+nC1+nC2+......+nCn
We also know the sum of all possible combinations of n distinct things is
nC0+nC1+ nC2+. . .+nCn= 2n. Hence, we calculate the above equation sum as
=2n
If f(x)=xn, then the value of $$f\left( 1 \right) + \dfrac{{{f^1}\left( 1 \right)}}{{1!}} + \dfrac{{{f^2}\left( 1 \right)}}{{2!}} + ...... + \dfrac{{{f^n}\left( 1 \right)}}{{n!}}$$$ = {2^n}$.
Note: In general, to find out the n-th derivative of function y=f(x) we need to find all derivatives of previous orders starting from 1 to nth. But sometimes n-th order derivative is possible to obtain as it depends on n and doesn't contain previous derivatives.
In order to calculate higher-order derivatives, we can use Leibniz's formula: