Question
Question: If \(f\) and \(g\) are one- one functions from \(R \to R\), then, A. \[f + g\] is one-one B. \(f...
If f and g are one- one functions from R→R, then,
A. f+g is one-one
B. fg is one-one
C. fog is one-one
D. none of these$$$$
Solution
Since, f and g are one- one functions from R→R, then if x1=x2, then f(x1)=f(x2) and g(x1)=g(x2). Let f(x)=−x and g(x)=x and then determine whether f+g and fg are one- one functions by taking examples. Similarly, prove if fog is one-one using the definition of one-one function.
Complete step-by-step answer:
We are given that f and g are one- one functions from R→R
That is, if x1=x2, then f(x1)=f(x2) and g(x1)=g(x2)
Let us first see if f+g is one-one or not.
Let f(x)=−x and g(x)=x
Then, f(x1)=f(x2) if and only if x1=x2
Similarly, g(x1)=g(x2) if and only if x1=x2
That is f and g are one-one functions.
Then, f+g(x)=−x+x=0
For example, f+g(−2)=f+g(1)=0 but −2=1
Thus, f+g is not none-one.
Similarly, f.g(x)=−x(x)=−x2
Let x1=2,x2=−2, then,
f.g(2)=−(2)2=−4 and f.g(−2)=−(−2)2=−4
Here, fg(2)=fg(−2)=−4 but 2=−2
Therefore, fg is not one-one.
Now, if x1=x2, then g(x1)=g(x2) which is a given condition.
And if g(x1)=g(x2) then f(g(x1))=f(g(x2)) because f is a one-one function.
Hence, fog is one-one.
Thus, option C is correct.
Note: If a function is one-one, then each element of the domain has a unique image. Not two different elements can map to the same element. Examples should be taken carefully such that it helps to check if the function is one-one or not.