Question
Question: If an inverse trigonometric equation is given as \({{\cos }^{-1}}x-{{\sin }^{-1}}x=0\) , then \(x\) ...
If an inverse trigonometric equation is given as cos−1x−sin−1x=0 , then x is equal to.
(a) ±21
(b) 1
(c) ±31
(d) 21
Solution
Hint: For solving this question first we will prove an important formula of inverse trigonometric functions i.e., sin−1x+cos−1x=2π. After that, we will find the angle sin−1x and then solve further to find the exact value of x.
Complete step-by-step solution -
Given:
It is given that, cos−1x−sin−1x=0 and we have to find the value of x.
Now, let sinθ=x. Then,
sinθ=x⇒θ=sin−1x..................(1)
Now, as we know that range of function θ=sin−1x will be from [−2π,2π] . Then,
−2π≤θ≤2π...................(2)
Now, we know that sinθ=cos(2π−θ) always. Then,
sinθ=x⇒cos(2π−θ)=x
Now, let 2π−θ=α so, we can write cos(2π−θ)=cosα in the above equation. Then,
cos(2π−θ)=x⇒cosα=x⇒α=cos−1x.................(3)
Now, as we know that range of function α=cos−1x will be from [0,π] . Then,
0≤α≤π
Now, as per our assumption 2π−θ=α so, we can write α=2π−θ in the above inequality. Then,
0≤α≤π⇒0≤2π−θ≤π
Now, subtract 2π in the above inequality. Then,
0≤2π−θ≤π⇒−2π≤2π−θ−2π≤π−2π⇒−2π≤−θ≤2π
Now, multiply by -1 in the above inequality. Then,
−2π≤−θ≤2π⇒2π≥θ≥−2π
Now, we can write the above inequality as −2π≤−θ≤2π and as this result matches with the equation (2) so, we conclude that we can write α=cos−1x for 2π−θ=α always. Then,
α=cos−1x⇒2π−θ=cos−1x
Now, put the value of θ=sin−1x from equation (1) in the above equation. Then,
2π−θ=cos−1x⇒2π−sin−1x=cos−1x⇒sin−1x+cos−1x=2π
Now, from the above result, we conclude that sin−1x+cos−1x=2π is always true. Then,
sin−1x+cos−1x=2π⇒cos−1x=2π−sin−1x
Now, subtract sin−1x from the above equation. Then,
cos−1x=2π−sin−1x⇒cos−1x−sin−1x=2π−sin−1x−sin−1x⇒cos−1x−sin−1x=2π−2sin−1x
Now, it is given that cos−1x−sin−1x=0 . Then,
cos−1x−sin−1x=2π−2sin−1x⇒0=2π−2sin−1x⇒2sin−1x=2π⇒sin−1x=4π
Now, apply sine operator in the above equation and then, write sin(sin−1x)=x and sin4π=21 . Then,
sin−1x=4π⇒sin(sin−1x)=sin4π⇒x=21
Now, from the above result, we conclude that if cos−1x−sin−1x=0 , then the value of x=21 .
Hence, option (d) will be the correct option.
Note: Here, the student should first understand and then proceed in the right direction to get the correct answer quickly. Moreover, for objective problems, we should remember the result sin−1x+cos−1x=2π and apply it directly without any mistake to get the correct answer quickly without doing lengthy calculations.