Question
Mathematics Question on Matrices
If A=π1[sin−1(πx)\[0.3em]sin−1πxtan−1(πx)cot−1(πx)] , B=π1[−cos−1(πx)\[0.3em]sin−1(πx)tan−1(πx)−tan−1(πx)] then A−B is equal to
A
I
B
0
C
2I
D
21I
Answer
21I
Explanation
Solution
We have, A=π1[sin−1(πx) sin−1(πx)tan−1(πx)cot−1(πx)]
and B=π1[−cos−1(πx) sin−1(πx)tan−1(πx)−tan−1(πx)]]
∴A−B
=π1[sin−1(πx)+cos−1(πx) sin−1(πx)−sin−1(πx)tan−1(πx)−tan−1(πx)cot−1(πx)+tan−1(πx)]
=π1[2π 002π][∵sin−1x+cos−1x=π/2 and cot−1x+tan−1x=2π]
=[21 0021]=21[1 001]=21I